Unit 4: Psychological Disoders – PYQs & MCQs with Full Explanations Covering All Topics
Q1. Which option most accurately defines a psychological disorder?
A) A temporary emotional reaction to stress
B) A pattern of behavior causing significant distress or impairment
C) A condition treated solely with physical medications
D) A minor disturbance in daily routine
Answer – B) A pattern of behavior causing significant distress or impairment
Explanation: Psychological disorders involve ongoing thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that interfere with daily functioning or cause significant personal distress.
A: Temporary emotions are normal and not disorders. C: Not all disorders require medication alone. D: Minor issues do not typically qualify as clinical disorders.
Q2. When is a psychological disorder considered clinically important?
A) When non-experts try to diagnose it
B) When it only impacts school performance
C) When it causes serious distress or affects everyday life
D) When only physical symptoms appear
Answer – C) When it causes serious distress or affects everyday life
Explanation: A condition is recognized as a psychological disorder when it leads to significant challenges in personal, social, or occupational areas of life.
A: Diagnosis must be done by qualified professionals. B: Disorders impact more than just academics. D: Mental and emotional symptoms are key.
Q3. Which of the following is not typically seen in psychological disorders?
A) Emotional distress
B) Impaired functioning
C) Persistent unusual behavior
D) Voluntary behavior change
Answer – D) Voluntary behavior change
Explanation: Changes seen in psychological disorders are generally involuntary and disruptive, not chosen or consciously controlled.
A: Emotional suffering is common in many disorders. B: Daily functioning is often affected. C: Unusual behaviors may persist beyond norms.
Q4. From a psychological viewpoint, mental health means:
A) Having no emotional responses
B) Being able to handle life’s stressors effectively
C) Remaining the same emotionally throughout life
D) Being influenced only by childhood experiences
Answer – B) Being able to handle life’s stressors effectively
Explanation: Good mental health is about adapting positively to challenges and maintaining emotional balance, not the absence of feelings.
A: Emotional expression is healthy. C: Mental health evolves with time and life events. D: Both past and present affect mental well-being.
Q5. What is the core objective behind studying psychological disorders?
A) To categorize people with different behaviors
B) To isolate individuals with mental illnesses
C) To identify, understand, and treat mental health problems
D) To improve physical endurance
Answer – C) To identify, understand, and treat mental health problems
Explanation: The main aim of studying psychological disorders is to help people by diagnosing and providing effective support or therapy.
A: Labeling alone is not helpful. B: Mental health care promotes inclusion, not exclusion. D: The focus is on emotional and mental functioning.
Q6. Which of the following is considered a key factor in identifying abnormal behavior?
A) High intelligence
B) Cultural approval
C) Personal distress
D) Academic excellence
Answer – C) Personal distress
Explanation: A person experiencing intense emotional discomfort or suffering is often a strong indicator of abnormal behavior, especially when it disrupts life.
A: Intelligence is unrelated to mental disorder criteria. B: Social approval may vary by culture but isn’t diagnostic. D: Academic success doesn’t define psychological health.
Q7. Which of the following does not align with the widely used criteria for defining psychological abnormality?
A) Statistical rarity
B) Personal discomfort
C) Cultural conformity
D) Maladaptive behavior
Answer – C) Cultural conformity
Explanation: Abnormality is not defined by fitting into cultural norms. Even culturally accepted behaviors can be unhealthy or problematic.
A: Rare behaviors can indicate abnormality. B: Emotional discomfort is a key factor. D: Maladaptive behavior interferes with daily life and is central to diagnosis.
Q8. An individual who hears voices that others do not and believes they’re being watched may be showing:
A) Normal stress reaction
B) Abnormal behavior
C) Attention-seeking behavior
D) Psychological resilience
Answer – B) Abnormal behavior
Explanation: Experiencing hallucinations and delusions are common symptoms of severe psychological disorders and indicate abnormal functioning.
A: Stress reactions don’t usually involve hallucinations. C: The symptoms are too serious to be dismissed as attention-seeking. D: These symptoms reflect psychological disruption, not resilience.
Q9. According to the statistical perspective, a behavior is considered abnormal when it:
A) Is performed by most people
B) Violates criminal law
C) Occurs rarely in the population
D) Is morally wrong
Answer – C) Occurs rarely in the population
Explanation: From a statistical view, behaviors far from the average or norm—meaning they occur infrequently—are often seen as abnormal.
A: Common behavior is not considered abnormal. B: Legal violations are separate from psychological norms. D: Morality varies culturally and isn’t always diagnostic.
Q10. Which psychological model focuses on biological causes and medical treatment for mental disorders?
A) Psychodynamic model
B) Humanistic model
C) Biological model
D) Cognitive model
Answer – C) Biological model
Explanation: The biological model explains mental illnesses through physical factors like brain chemistry, genetics, and neurological issues, and emphasizes medical treatments.
A: Focuses on unconscious drives, not biology. B: Emphasizes self-growth and conscious choice. D: Centers on thinking patterns and beliefs.
Q11. Which psychological model views mental disorders as a result of flawed reasoning or irrational thought processes?
A) Behavioral
B) Biological
C) Cognitive
D) Sociocultural
Answer – C) Cognitive
Explanation: The cognitive model focuses on how negative and illogical thinking patterns contribute to emotional problems and mental disorders.
A: Behavioral theory emphasizes learned responses, not thinking. B: Biological model deals with brain and genetic factors. D: Sociocultural model focuses on societal and cultural influences.
Q12. What is the primary purpose of the DSM-5 and ICD-11 in the field of psychology?
A) Promoting mental wellness
B) Treating brain injuries
C) Classifying psychological disorders
D) Measuring intelligence
Answer – C) Classifying psychological disorders
Explanation: Both the DSM-5 and ICD-11 serve as standard classification systems used by professionals to diagnose and categorize mental disorders.
A: They are diagnostic tools, not wellness programs. B: They focus on psychological, not physical, diagnoses. D: Intelligence tests are separate tools, like IQ tests.
Q13. What does the abbreviation DSM stand for in psychological diagnosis?
A) Diagnostic Standards Manual
B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
C) Disorders and Symptoms Manual
D) Detailed Syndrome Measure
Answer – B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
Explanation: DSM stands for “Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders,” which is used by mental health professionals for standardized diagnosis.
A: Sounds close but isn’t the official full form. C: This title is incorrect and unofficial. D: Not a recognized diagnostic term in psychology.
Q14. Which organization is responsible for creating and updating the ICD-11?
A) American Medical Association
B) World Psychiatric Council
C) World Health Organization
D) International Psychology Society
Answer – C) World Health Organization
Explanation: The ICD-11 is developed and maintained by the World Health Organization (WHO) as a global standard for disease classification, including mental disorders.
A: Not responsible for international classification systems. B: Not a recognized official body for the ICD. D: Doesn’t publish diagnostic classification systems.
Q15. What does ICD stand for in medical and psychological classification systems?
A) International Classification of Disabilities
B) Internal Categorization of Disorders
C) International Classification of Diseases
D) Identified Clinical Diagnoses
Answer – C) International Classification of Diseases
Explanation: ICD stands for “International Classification of Diseases” and includes a comprehensive catalog of physical and mental health conditions.
A: Disabilities are part of ICD but not the full definition. B: Not a recognized or correct term. D: This name does not reflect the global standard usage.
Q16. Which statement accurately reflects the nature of classification systems in mental health?
A) They eliminate all chances of misdiagnosis
B) They are flexible and can be revised
C) They do not require research evidence
D) They only cover physical disorders
Answer – B) They are flexible and can be revised
Explanation: Classification systems like DSM and ICD are updated regularly as new research emerges, ensuring they stay relevant and evidence-based.
A: No system can fully prevent misdiagnosis. C: Scientific validation is essential for classification. D: They include both physical and mental conditions.
Q17. In psychological diagnosis, what does the term co-morbidity refer to?
A) Only physical disorders occurring alone
B) Presence of more than one psychological disorder in the same person
C) Diagnosis without any symptom
D) Death caused by psychological disorders
Answer – B) Presence of more than one psychological disorder in the same person
Explanation: Co-morbidity means that an individual experiences more than one mental disorder at the same time, which can complicate diagnosis and treatment.
A: This refers to physical health, not mental disorders. C: Symptoms are required for diagnosis. D: Co-morbidity is not related to mortality.
Q18. According to the diathesis-stress model, psychological disorders result from:
A) Only genetic causes
B) Only environmental pressure
C) Biological vulnerability and stressful life experiences
D) Social approval and reinforcement
Answer – C) Biological vulnerability and stressful life experiences
Explanation: The diathesis-stress model suggests that an individual with a predisposition (diathesis) may develop a disorder when exposed to stress.
A: Genetics alone may not cause disorders without stress. B: Stress alone isn’t always sufficient to trigger disorders. D: Social approval typically supports well-being, not illness.
Q19. Which is an example of a psychological factor that can lead to abnormal behavior?
A) Genetic mutation
B) Imbalanced diet
C) Maladaptive thought patterns
D) Hormonal changes
Answer – C) Maladaptive thought patterns
Explanation: Negative or distorted ways of thinking can contribute to the development and maintenance of mental disorders.
A: This is a biological factor, not psychological. B: Nutrition affects health but isn’t a core psychological cause. D: Hormonal shifts are linked to biology, not cognition.
Q20. Which biological factor is most commonly associated with the development of schizophrenia?
A) Vitamin deficiency
B) Dopamine imbalance
C) Thyroid overactivity
D) Iron overload
Answer – B) Dopamine imbalance
Explanation: Excess dopamine activity, particularly in certain brain pathways, is strongly linked to the symptoms of schizophrenia.
A: Vitamin levels are not a direct cause of schizophrenia. C: Thyroid issues affect mood but aren’t core causes here. D: Iron overload is unrelated to this condition.
Q21. A person who often feels guilty and is stuck in a cycle of negative thinking is likely showing which kind of psychological influence?
A) Hormonal fluctuation
B) Faulty cognition
C) Genetic error
D) Brain injury
Answer – B) Faulty cognition
Explanation: Repetitive guilt and negative thoughts are signs of distorted cognitive processing, often studied in cognitive psychology.
A: Hormonal shifts may affect mood but not specific thought patterns. C: Genetic issues may increase risk but don’t directly cause such thoughts. D: Brain injuries affect function but not necessarily create guilt-based thought loops.
Q22. Why is it helpful to have classification manuals like DSM and ICD in the field of mental health?
A) They stop therapists from using varied approaches
B) They create a common framework for diagnosis
C) They discourage non-medical treatments
D) They ignore regional differences
Answer – B) They create a common framework for diagnosis
Explanation: Manuals like DSM and ICD standardize how mental disorders are understood and diagnosed worldwide, improving consistency among professionals.
A: Classification supports, not limits, treatment options. C: It does not promote one form of treatment over another. D: Modern editions include cultural considerations.
Q23. One major benefit of psychological classification systems is that they:
A) Increase negative labeling of people
B) Help professionals communicate clearly
C) Prevent access to alternative therapies
D) Cause confusion in diagnosis
Answer – B) Help professionals communicate clearly
Explanation: A shared diagnostic system helps psychologists and psychiatrists understand each other’s evaluations and plan better treatment strategies.
A: Misuse may lead to labeling, but that’s not the system’s purpose. C: Therapists can still choose the best-suited therapy. D: These systems reduce, not increase, diagnostic confusion.
Q24. According to the biopsychosocial perspective, mental disorders are caused by:
A) Excess use of digital devices
B) A single stressful event
C) A mix of body, mind, and social influences
D) Supernatural beliefs
Answer – C) A mix of body, mind, and social influences
Explanation: The biopsychosocial model explains abnormal behaviour as a combination of biological makeup, mental processes, and life experiences.
A: Technology may be a factor but not a direct cause. B: Mental illness is rarely caused by one event alone. D: Not part of scientifically supported models.
Q25. Which option represents a biological vulnerability to developing depression?
A) Harsh discipline from parents
B) Low self-worth
C) Genetic link to mood disorders
D) Negative peer influence
Answer – C) Genetic link to mood disorders
Explanation: A family history of depression indicates a genetic predisposition, making it a biological risk factor.
A: This is an environmental factor, not biological. B: Low self-worth is psychological, not genetic. D: Peer pressure is a social factor, not a biological one.
Q26. From a sociocultural point of view, which factor plays a major role in shaping abnormal behaviour?
A) Personal hygiene
B) Nutritional choices
C) Social roles and cultural expectations
D) Immune response
Answer – C) Social roles and cultural expectations
Explanation: Sociocultural theories suggest that pressures from societal norms and expectations influence what is considered abnormal within a culture.
A: Hygiene may reflect behaviour but is not a defining cultural factor. B: Diet affects physical health more than cultural norms. D: Immunity relates to physical illness, not cultural pressure.
Q27. Which school of thought views irrational beliefs and distorted thoughts as the root of abnormal behavior?
A) Behavioural
B) Cognitive
C) Biological
D) Sociocultural
Answer – B) Cognitive
Explanation: The cognitive model explains psychological problems as resulting from faulty mental processes and irrational thinking patterns.
A: Behavioural theory focuses on learning through conditioning. C: Biological theory looks at brain and body functions. D: Sociocultural theory emphasizes societal impact.
Q28. Which theory of abnormality focuses on how behaviors are learned through experiences and reinforcement?
A) Humanistic theory
B) Psychodynamic theory
C) Behavioural theory
D) Sociocultural theory
Answer – C) Behavioural theory
Explanation: The behavioural model sees abnormal behaviour as the result of learning, whether through rewards, punishments, or observation.
A: Humanistic theory highlights self-growth and personal potential. B: Psychodynamic theory stresses unconscious conflict. D: Sociocultural theory focuses on society’s influence.
Q29. Which neurotransmitter is most closely linked to the development of depression?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Adrenaline
Answer – B) Serotonin
Explanation: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, and its imbalance is strongly associated with depressive disorders.
A: Acetylcholine is more involved in memory and movement. C: Dopamine relates more to reward and schizophrenia. D: Adrenaline deals with stress responses.
Q30. What are neurodevelopmental disorders characterized by?
A) Conditions affecting older adults only
B) Disorders that begin in childhood and impact growth
C) Mental decline from adult brain trauma
D) Emotional changes in adolescence
Answer – B) Disorders that begin in childhood and impact growth
Explanation: Neurodevelopmental disorders like autism and ADHD begin early in life and interfere with personal, academic, or social development.
A: These disorders are not limited to the elderly. C: Brain injuries may cause issues but are not developmental. D: Emotional shifts may happen, but they don’t define this category.
Q31. What is a key characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?
A) Binge eating without purging
B) Frequent intake of high-calorie snacks
C) Severe food restriction and intense fear of gaining weight
D) Excessive workouts only
Answer – C) Severe food restriction and intense fear of gaining weight
Explanation: Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa typically limit food intake drastically and have an overwhelming fear of becoming overweight, even if underweight.
A: This describes Binge-Eating Disorder, not Anorexia. B: Excessive snacking isn’t a feature of Anorexia Nervosa. D: Over-exercising may occur, but food restriction and fear of weight gain are core traits.
Q32. Which of the following is a typical sign of Conduct Disorder in children or adolescents?
A) Strong impulse control
B) Persistent aggression and rule-breaking behavior
C) Intense guilt after mistakes
D) Nervousness in authority figures’ presence
Answer – B) Persistent aggression and rule-breaking behavior
Explanation: Conduct Disorder includes patterns of behavior where social rules and the rights of others are consistently violated, often involving aggression or deceit.
A: Lack of impulse control is actually a hallmark issue in this disorder. C: These individuals often lack remorse. D: They may challenge authority rather than fear it.
Q33. How do hallucinations differ from delusions in psychological disorders?
A) Hallucinations are false beliefs
B) Delusions involve physical sensations
C) Hallucinations are inaccurate sensory experiences, like hearing voices
D) Delusions are things a person can touch
Answer – C) Hallucinations are inaccurate sensory experiences, like hearing voices
Explanation: Hallucinations involve false sensory input (e.g., seeing or hearing things that are not real), while delusions are fixed false beliefs not grounded in reality.
A: That describes delusions, not hallucinations. B: Delusions are cognitive, not sensory. D: Delusions are not physical objects.
Q34. What is a central feature of schizophrenia?
A) Switching between high and low moods
B) Disorganized thoughts, disturbed perception, and emotional blunting
C) Avoidance of public events
D) Compulsive cleaning rituals
Answer – B) Disorganized thoughts, disturbed perception, and emotional blunting
Explanation: Schizophrenia includes symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, confused thinking, and emotional withdrawal or flatness.
A: Mood swings define Bipolar Disorder, not schizophrenia. C: Social anxiety may cause this, not schizophrenia alone. D: Repetitive handwashing is more common in OCD.
Q35. Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in a manic episode?
A) Isolation and persistent sadness
B) Inflated self-esteem, fast speech, and excessive energy
C) Only visual hallucinations
D) Oversleeping and fatigue
Answer – B) Inflated self-esteem, fast speech, and excessive energy
Explanation: Mania is marked by high energy levels, racing thoughts, inflated confidence, and sometimes risky behaviors, commonly seen in Bipolar I Disorder.
A: These are symptoms of depression, not mania. C: Hallucinations can occur but are not core manic symptoms. D: These indicate low energy, opposite of mania.
Q36. What does the term “binge-eating” most accurately describe in psychological disorders?
A) Total refusal to eat any food
B) Intense physical exercise episodes
C) Consuming large amounts of food rapidly, often followed by guilt
D) Eating slowly and continuously all day
Answer – C) Consuming large amounts of food rapidly, often followed by guilt
Explanation: Binge-eating involves eating unusually large portions of food in a short time with a loss of control, commonly followed by feelings of guilt or distress.
A: Describes anorexia, not binge-eating. B: Not related to eating behavior. D: Continuous eating is not the same as binge episodes.
Q37. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to occur in Major Depressive Disorder?
A) Ongoing low mood
B) Excessive energy and high motivation
C) Loss of interest in usual activities
D) Strong feelings of hopelessness
Answer – B) Excessive energy and high motivation
Explanation: Major Depressive Disorder typically includes fatigue, sadness, and disinterest. Excessive energy is a feature of mania, not depression.
A: A core symptom of depression. C: Loss of pleasure is central to the disorder. D: Feelings of worthlessness are common in depressive episodes.
Q38. What is a defining feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A) Sudden uncontrollable rage
B) Ongoing anxiety not limited to specific situations
C) Panic in wide-open public places
D) Fear of germs and cleanliness
Answer – B) Ongoing anxiety not limited to specific situations
Explanation: GAD involves constant, free-floating anxiety that is difficult to control and not linked to any one cause or situation.
A: May relate to anger issues, not GAD. C: That describes agoraphobia. D: More related to obsessive-compulsive tendencies.
Q39. Which of these is a globally recognized manual for diagnosing psychological disorders?
A) ICD-9
B) DSM-5
C) WHO Mental Index
D) Binet Scale
Answer – B) DSM-5
Explanation: The DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition) is a widely used guide for diagnosing mental health conditions, especially in the United States.
A: An outdated version of ICD. C: Not an actual diagnostic manual. D: Binet Scale measures intelligence, not mental illness.
Q40. What is a main limitation of the statistical model used to define abnormal behavior?
A) It completely ignores psychological conditions
B) It overlooks cultural differences in behavior
C) It assumes that rare traits are always negative
D) Both B and C
Answer – D) Both B and C
Explanation: The statistical model classifies any behavior that deviates from the norm as abnormal, but this can ignore cultural context and unfairly label rare but positive traits (e.g., high intelligence) as abnormal.
A: The model doesn’t ignore disorders, it just uses frequency to define abnormality. B: Correct but not the only issue. C: Also correct, making D the best choice.
Major Psychological Disorders
1. Anxiety Disorders
Q41. What is the central feature of anxiety-related disorders?
A) Experiencing hallucinations and delusional thoughts
B) Ongoing, excessive fear and anxiety
C) Sudden emotional shifts between joy and sadness
D) Persistent lack of energy or drive
Answer – B) Ongoing, excessive fear and anxiety
Explanation: Anxiety disorders are defined by persistent fear, worry, or nervousness that interferes with daily functioning.
A: These are features of psychotic disorders. C: Describes mood disorders like bipolar disorder. D: Common in depressive conditions, not anxiety.
Q42. Someone who avoids malls and large events due to overwhelming fear may be showing signs of:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
B) Specific Phobia
C) Panic Disorder
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Answer – B) Specific Phobia
Explanation: Phobias involve intense, irrational fears of specific objects, situations, or places — such as crowds or enclosed spaces — often leading to avoidance behavior.
A: GAD involves general worry, not specific avoidance. C: Panic disorder includes attacks without a consistent trigger. D: OCD involves obsessions and compulsions, not fear of places.
Q43. What best describes Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
A) Fear focused on specific objects or events
B) Persistent, uncontrolled worry across various life areas
C) Sudden onset of extreme fear and panic
D) Repeating certain actions or rituals
Answer – B) Persistent, uncontrolled worry across various life areas
Explanation: GAD is marked by long-term, excessive worry about everyday issues like health, work, or relationships, not limited to one specific concern.
A: Describes phobic reactions. C: Fits panic attacks more closely. D: Related to compulsions in OCD.
Q44. Which of the following disorders is best classified as a phobic anxiety condition?
A) Intense fear of public places or being alone in open areas
B) Obsessive thoughts that repeat constantly
C) Low mood lasting for long durations
D) A sense of being detached from reality or oneself
Answer – A) Intense fear of public places or being alone in open areas
Explanation: This describes agoraphobia, a type of phobic disorder where the person fears situations they perceive as hard to escape or where help might not be available.
B: Refers to obsessions in OCD. C: Fits depressive disorders. D: Seen in dissociative symptoms, not phobias.
Q45. What does a sudden episode of rapid heartbeat, breathlessness, and fear of dying most likely indicate?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Panic attack
C) Obsessive-Compulsive reaction
D) Response to a specific phobia
Answer – B) Panic attack
Explanation: A panic attack involves sudden physical symptoms like rapid heartbeat, breathlessness, and a feeling of impending doom, often without a specific external trigger.
A: Schizophrenia includes disorganized thinking and hallucinations. C: OCD involves compulsions and intrusive thoughts. D: While phobias cause fear, panic attacks are more intense and unpredictable.
Q46. What is the main feature of Social Anxiety Disorder?
A) Intense fear of being in small, enclosed spaces
B) Excessive fear of insects and pests
C) Strong fear of being judged or embarrassed in social settings
D) Fear of losing physical control in crowded areas
Answer – C) Strong fear of being judged or embarrassed in social settings
Explanation: Social Anxiety Disorder involves overwhelming anxiety in situations where the person feels they may be scrutinized or negatively evaluated by others.
A: Describes claustrophobia, not social anxiety. B: Refers to specific phobia, not social fears. D: Closer to panic disorder or agoraphobia, not social evaluation.
Q47. Which of the following best defines Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
A) Intense fear of being left alone
B) Persistent belief in unrealistic ideas
C) Unwanted repetitive thoughts and rituals like checking or cleaning
D) Lack of visible emotional responses
Answer – C) Unwanted repetitive thoughts and rituals like checking or cleaning
Explanation: OCD involves obsessions (disturbing recurring thoughts) and compulsions (ritualistic behaviors performed to ease the anxiety caused by those thoughts).
A: May relate to attachment issues, not OCD. B: Associated with delusional disorders. D: Refers to flat affect in schizophrenia, not OCD.
Q48. Which action best illustrates a compulsion?
A) Being constantly afraid of contamination
B) Repeatedly washing hands even when clean
C) Feeling nervous before an exam
D) Avoiding people out of social anxiety
Answer – B) Repeatedly washing hands even when clean
Explanation: A compulsion is a repetitive act a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession, such as repeated washing due to fear of germs.
A: Represents an obsession, not a compulsion. C: A normal emotional response, not a symptom. D: Linked with social anxiety, not compulsive behavior.
Q49. What distinguishes a panic disorder from general anxiety?
A) Panic attacks happen continuously without a break
B) Panic attacks occur abruptly and without a clear warning
C) Panic disorder is caused by fear of animals
D) Panic disorder stays unchanged for many years
Answer – B) Panic attacks occur abruptly and without a clear warning
Explanation: Panic disorder features sudden and unexpected attacks of intense fear or discomfort, often with physical symptoms, in contrast to the ongoing worry of generalized anxiety.
A: Panic attacks are brief, not continuous. C: Fear of animals is a specific phobia. D: Duration varies; it’s not a defining feature.
Q50. What type of situation is commonly avoided by individuals with agoraphobia?
A) Reading at home quietly
B) Sitting in small indoor spaces
C) Visiting crowded or open public areas where escape feels difficult
D) Having personal conversations with family members
Answer – C) Visiting crowded or open public areas where escape feels difficult
Explanation: Agoraphobia is marked by avoidance of places or situations where escape might be hard or help unavailable, especially in public or unfamiliar environments.
A: Safe and unlikely to be avoided. B: Could relate to claustrophobia, not agoraphobia. D: Not specific to agoraphobia symptoms.
2. Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders
Q51. Which pair correctly represents the central features of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
A) Delusions and hallucinations
B) Phobia and panic
C) Obsessions and compulsions
D) Flashbacks and dissociation
Answer – C) Obsessions and compulsions
Explanation: OCD involves unwanted, recurring thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to relieve anxiety caused by those thoughts.
A: Found in psychotic disorders like schizophrenia. B: These are symptoms of anxiety or phobic disorders. D: Common in trauma-related conditions like PTSD.
Q52. Which of the following is most likely a behavior seen in someone with OCD?
A) Repeatedly washing hands due to fear of germs
B) Skipping meals to lose weight
C) Responding to voices no one else hears
D) Feeling anxious about being judged by others
Answer – A) Repeatedly washing hands due to fear of germs
Explanation: A common compulsion in OCD is excessive handwashing to cope with obsessive fears of contamination.
B: Indicates an eating disorder like anorexia nervosa. C: Related to hallucinations in psychosis. D: Characteristic of social anxiety, not OCD.
Q53. Which of these options best illustrates an obsession in OCD?
A) Repeatedly switching lights off
B) Recurring intrusive thoughts about harming someone
C) Counting how many objects are on a table
D) Organizing items into neat rows frequently
Answer – B) Recurring intrusive thoughts about harming someone
Explanation: Obsessions are distressing, intrusive thoughts or images that repeatedly enter a person’s mind, such as harmful thoughts the person does not want to act on.
A: This is a compulsion (repetitive behavior). C: Also represents compulsive behavior, not thought. D: Behavioral, not cognitive — thus a compulsion.
Q54. What is the primary function of compulsive behaviors in OCD?
A) To completely withdraw from social settings
B) To reduce distress caused by obsessive thoughts
C) To create hallucinations on demand
D) To improve concentration and attention span
Answer – B) To reduce distress caused by obsessive thoughts
Explanation: Compulsions are performed in response to obsessions to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared event, though these actions often do not realistically prevent the obsession.
A: Avoidance is more associated with phobias. C: Hallucinations occur in psychotic disorders, not OCD. D: OCD compulsions do not enhance focus.
Q55. Which of the following accurately describes compulsions in OCD?
A) Always based on rational fears
B) Enjoyable and relaxing behaviors
C) Repetitive acts done to lower anxiety from obsessions
D) Audible voices that give instructions
Answer – C) Repetitive acts done to lower anxiety from obsessions
Explanation: Compulsions are ritualistic actions a person feels driven to perform in response to obsessions, aiming to neutralize or reduce the resulting anxiety.
A: Often irrational, not logical fears. B: They are performed out of necessity, not pleasure. D: Describes auditory hallucinations, not compulsions.
Q56. What distinguishes obsessive thoughts in OCD from everyday worries?
A) OCD thoughts are always based on real events
B) OCD thoughts are intrusive, distressing, and difficult to control
C) Normal worries are more emotionally upsetting
D) OCD does not involve feelings of anxiety
Answer – B) OCD thoughts are intrusive, distressing, and difficult to control
Explanation: OCD thoughts are unwanted and repetitive, often causing significant anxiety. Unlike normal worries, they feel intrusive and the person struggles to suppress them.
A: OCD thoughts often lack a real basis. C: Normal worries are typically less distressing. D: Anxiety is a core feature of OCD.
Q57. Which disorder is characterized by the compulsive urge to pull out one’s own hair?
A) Trichotillomania
B) Somatic Symptom Disorder
C) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Answer – A) Trichotillomania
Explanation: Trichotillomania involves recurrent, irresistible urges to pull out hair from the scalp, eyebrows, or other areas, often leading to noticeable hair loss.
B: Involves excessive focus on physical symptoms. C: Focuses on perceived body flaws, not hair pulling. D: Involves re-experiencing trauma, not compulsive behaviors.
Q58. What is a common symptom of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A) Frequent and intense panic attacks
B) Preoccupation with imagined or minor physical flaws
C) Complete avoidance of going outside
D) Drastic shifts in mood from high to low
Answer – B) Preoccupation with imagined or minor physical flaws
Explanation: Individuals with Body Dysmorphic Disorder become excessively concerned about slight or imagined defects in appearance, often leading to distress and social withdrawal.
A: More characteristic of panic disorder. C: Avoidance may occur, but not always. D: Seen in bipolar disorders, not BDD.
Q59. Which behavior is most typical of someone with Hoarding Disorder?
A) Frequently checks locks or appliances
B) Collects and cannot discard items, even with no practical use
C) Has a strong need to count or repeat numbers
D) Avoids all public interaction due to anxiety
Answer – B) Collects and cannot discard items, even with no practical use
Explanation: Hoarding Disorder involves persistent difficulty parting with possessions, regardless of actual value, often resulting in cluttered and unsafe living spaces.
A: Common in OCD, not hoarding. C: Represents a compulsion, not hoarding behavior. D: May occur in social anxiety, not hoarding.
Q60. Which method is most effective in treating OCD?
A) Using strict punishment to eliminate behaviors
B) Ignoring the symptoms to avoid stress
C) A combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and medication
D) Permanent hospitalization without therapy
Answer – C) A combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and medication
Explanation: The most effective treatment for OCD is CBT, especially Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP), along with medications like SSRIs to reduce obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions.
A: Punishment increases stress and is not therapeutic. B: Ignoring symptoms can worsen the condition. D: Hospitalization is rare and used only in extreme cases.
3. Stress and Trauma Related Disorders
Q61. Which of the following is a prominent feature of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
A) Reduced heart rate
B) Excessive daytime sleepiness
C) Re-experiencing traumatic events
D) Increased appetite
Answer – C) Re-experiencing traumatic events
Explanation: A core symptom of PTSD is the repeated reliving of the traumatic experience through flashbacks, nightmares, or intrusive memories.
A: PTSD is more often linked to heightened physiological arousal, not reduced heart rate. B: This is more associated with sleep disorders. D: PTSD can affect appetite, but re-experiencing is a defining symptom.
Q62. PTSD is most likely to arise after:
A) Increasing academic pressure
B) A traumatic or life-threatening experience
C) Lack of physical activity
D) Positive life changes
Answer – B) A traumatic or life-threatening experience
Explanation: PTSD typically occurs after exposure to events like war, accidents, natural disasters, or assault that involve real or perceived danger to life.
A: Stress from studies may lead to anxiety, not PTSD. C: Physical inactivity may affect mood but not cause PTSD. D: PTSD is caused by trauma, not positive events.
Q63. Flashbacks and recurring nightmares are most likely symptoms of:
A) Personality disorders
B) Eating disorders
C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
D) Dissociative disorders
Answer – C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Explanation: PTSD is known for involuntary flashbacks and vivid nightmares related to a past trauma, often accompanied by intense emotional and physical reactions.
A: Personality disorders may involve long-term behavior patterns but not flashbacks. B: Not related to trauma re-experiencing. D: May involve memory disruption, but not specific trauma flashbacks.
Q64. When a person actively avoids places, people, or situations that remind them of a traumatic event, this is an example of:
A) Social anxiety
B) Avoidance behavior in PTSD
C) Schizophrenia
D) Mood swings seen in bipolar disorder
Answer – B) Avoidance behavior in PTSD
Explanation: Avoidance is a key symptom of PTSD, where individuals try to escape triggers that remind them of the trauma, leading to emotional and physical distancing.
A: Social anxiety involves fear of judgment, not trauma reminders. C: Characterized by delusions or hallucinations. D: Refers to emotional shifts, not trauma avoidance.
Q65. In PTSD, hypervigilance refers to:
A) Sleepwalking episodes
B) Constant alertness and excessive scanning for threats
C) Feeling emotionally detached from surroundings
D) Inability to recall traumatic memories
Answer – B) Constant alertness and excessive scanning for threats
Explanation: Hypervigilance is an exaggerated state of awareness, where individuals feel constantly on edge and may overreact to sounds or movements, expecting danger.
A: Not a PTSD symptom; more related to parasomnias. C: Emotional numbness is a separate symptom category. D: More relevant to dissociative amnesia than hypervigilance.
Q66. Acute Stress Reaction differs from Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) primarily in terms of:
A) Intensity
B) Duration
C) Origin
D) Physical symptoms
Answer – B) Duration
Explanation: Acute Stress Reaction usually occurs immediately after a traumatic event and lasts for a shorter period (less than a month), whereas PTSD persists longer and may develop after a delay.
A: Both conditions can show similar intensity depending on the case. C: Both may arise from trauma, so origin is similar. D: Physical symptoms may overlap but are not a primary differentiator.
Q67. A soldier having recurring nightmares and emotional numbness months after returning from combat is most likely showing signs of:
A) General Anxiety Disorder
B) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
Answer – C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Explanation: Symptoms such as persistent nightmares, emotional detachment, and distressing memories occurring long after a traumatic experience are typical of PTSD.
A: GAD involves chronic worry, not trauma-related flashbacks. B: OCD centers on obsessions and compulsions, not trauma re-experiencing. D: ADHD is related to attention and impulse control, not trauma.
Q68. Which of the following therapies is especially effective in treating trauma-related disorders like PTSD?
A) Rational Emotive Therapy
B) Behavior Modification
C) Exposure Therapy
D) Group Hypnosis
Answer – C) Exposure Therapy
Explanation: Exposure therapy involves safely confronting trauma-related memories or triggers to reduce avoidance and fear responses, making it highly suitable for PTSD treatment.
A: Focuses on challenging irrational beliefs, not trauma processing. B: Useful for behavior change but less targeted for PTSD. D: Group hypnosis is not a standard treatment for trauma disorders.
Q69. Intrusive thoughts, difficulty sleeping, and increased irritability are symptoms most commonly linked to:
A) Histrionic Personality Disorder
B) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
C) Autism Spectrum Disorder
D) Somatic Symptom Disorder
Answer – B) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Explanation: PTSD symptoms include unwanted intrusive memories, sleep disturbances, and emotional reactivity, often emerging after trauma.
A: Histrionic disorder involves attention-seeking behaviors. C: Autism is a developmental condition, not trauma-based. D: Somatic disorders focus on physical symptoms with no medical cause.
Q70. The primary cause of trauma and stress-related disorders is:
A) Repetitive daily routines
B) Too much physical exercise
C) Exposure to traumatic life events
D) Overuse of positive affirmations
Answer – C) Exposure to traumatic life events
Explanation: Trauma-related disorders stem from exposure to extreme stress or life-threatening experiences, such as accidents, violence, or disasters.
A: Routine tasks may cause boredom but not trauma disorders. B: Physical activity is generally beneficial for mental health. D: Positive thinking has no role in causing trauma-based conditions.
4. Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
Q71. Which of the following best defines Somatic Symptom Disorder?
A) Physical discomfort that lacks medical explanation
B) Issues only linked to emotional outbursts
C) Lack of motivation to engage in fitness activities
D) Symptoms caused by confirmed medical illnesses
Answer – A) Physical discomfort that lacks medical explanation
Explanation: Somatic Symptom Disorder involves experiencing real physical symptoms, such as pain or fatigue, but without a detectable medical cause. The distress is genuine and often leads to excessive worry about health.
B: Emotional issues alone do not define this disorder. C: Avoiding exercise may occur, but it is not central to the disorder. D: In Somatic Symptom Disorder, no identifiable physical illness is found.
Q72. What is the main concern of individuals with Somatic Symptom Disorder?
A) Improving social popularity
B) Finding new leisure activities
C) Worry over bodily symptoms that cause serious emotional strain
D) Pretending to be sick for rewards
Answer – C) Worry over bodily symptoms that cause serious emotional strain
Explanation: This disorder is marked by distress over physical sensations like pain or fatigue, even when medical tests show no serious cause. The individual often seeks repeated medical help and reassurance.
A: Social concerns are unrelated. B: Hobbies are not a central focus. D: That behavior describes malingering, not Somatic Symptom Disorder.
Q73. Conversion Disorder typically presents as:
A) Dreams turning into daily thoughts
B) Sudden sensory or motor loss without a physical reason
C) Constant eating without hunger
D) Fluctuating energy and mood throughout the day
Answer – B) Sudden sensory or motor loss without a physical reason
Explanation: Conversion Disorder involves neurological-like symptoms, such as paralysis or blindness, that appear without an underlying physical injury. The condition is often triggered by psychological stress or trauma.
A: This is metaphorical, not clinical. C: Overeating is associated with binge-eating or emotional eating. D: Mood swings relate more to mood disorders like Bipolar Disorder.
Q74. A person who loses the ability to walk without any injury is likely experiencing:
A) Obsessive behaviors from OCD
B) A delusional episode
C) Symptoms of Conversion Disorder
D) A typical panic reaction
Answer – C) Symptoms of Conversion Disorder
Explanation: In Conversion Disorder, physical abilities like walking or seeing may suddenly stop working, though no physical damage is found. The cause is psychological, not organic.
A: OCD involves rituals and thoughts, not sudden paralysis. B: Delusions are fixed false beliefs, not motor impairment. D: Panic attacks involve intense fear, but not functional paralysis.
Q75. Illness Anxiety Disorder was previously known by which term?
A) Memory loss disorder
B) Mood imbalance
C) Hypochondriasis
D) Psychotic reaction
Answer – C) Hypochondriasis
Explanation: Illness Anxiety Disorder, earlier called Hypochondriasis, is marked by persistent fear or belief of having a serious illness, even when medical evidence is lacking.
A: Memory loss relates to dissociative disorders. B: Mood imbalances are seen in depressive or bipolar disorders. D: Psychosis includes hallucinations and delusions, not health worries.
Q76. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder?
A) Excessive thoughts related to symptoms
B) Repeated checking of symptoms
C) Genuine physical injury
D) High levels of anxiety about health
Answer – C) Genuine physical injury
Explanation: While the symptoms in Somatic Symptom Disorder are experienced as real, they are not due to an actual physical injury or illness. The focus is on distress and health-related anxiety, not on verified injury.
A: Excessive focus on symptoms is common. B: Repeatedly monitoring the body for signs is typical. D: Anxiety about health is a defining feature.
Q77. Which statement best explains the nature of Conversion Disorder?
A) Symptoms are intentionally faked
B) Symptoms appear unconsciously without any known medical cause
C) It involves frequent emotional highs and lows
D) It’s mostly about fear of being judged in social settings
Answer – B) Symptoms appear unconsciously without any known medical cause
Explanation: Conversion Disorder causes genuine motor or sensory issues (like paralysis or blindness) that arise due to psychological stress. These symptoms are not consciously created or faked.
A: Intentional faking relates to Factitious Disorder. C: Mood swings are linked to bipolar or mood disorders. D: That describes social anxiety, not conversion symptoms.
Q78. Individuals with somatic symptom disorders often:
A) Feel perfectly healthy despite complaints
B) Show no concern about their symptoms
C) Experience their symptoms as serious and life-altering
D) Avoid all interaction with doctors or hospitals
Answer – C) Experience their symptoms as serious and life-altering
Explanation: People with somatic symptom disorders often feel greatly affected by their symptoms, even if no medical cause is found. The impact on daily life can be significant, due to fear and anxiety.
A: They feel distressed, not healthy. B: Indifference is more common in Conversion Disorder, not here. D: They often seek medical attention frequently.
Q79. Which of these therapeutic methods is considered most effective for managing somatic symptom disorders?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Psychoeducation and cognitive-behavioral therapy
C) Aversion therapy
D) Relying only on dream interpretation
Answer – B) Psychoeducation and cognitive-behavioral therapy
Explanation: CBT and psychoeducation help individuals understand the connection between thoughts, emotions, and physical symptoms. They learn better coping skills and reduce their health anxiety.
A: Classical conditioning isn’t directly useful for this disorder. C: Aversion therapy is not relevant here. D: Dream analysis is not sufficient for these disorders.
Q80. What makes Factitious Disorder different from other somatic symptom disorders?
A) The individual intentionally pretends to be ill
B) It is limited to young children only
C) It involves long-term memory loss
D) The person suffers from a real and diagnosed illness
Answer – A) The individual intentionally pretends to be ill
Explanation: In Factitious Disorder, a person deliberately produces or exaggerates symptoms, not for external gain (like money), but to adopt the “sick role.” This distinguishes it from other disorders where symptoms are not faked.
B: Factitious Disorder can occur in any age group. C: Memory issues are not core features. D: The symptoms are feigned, not due to actual disease.
5. Dissociative Disorders
Q81. Dissociative disorders are mainly marked by disruptions in:
A) Digestion and respiration
B) Memory, identity, and consciousness
C) Sleep and alertness
D) Sensory perception only
Answer – B) Memory, identity, and consciousness
Explanation: Dissociative disorders involve a disconnection or disruption in memory, sense of self, awareness, or perception, typically in response to overwhelming stress or trauma.
A: These are physical processes, unrelated to dissociative issues. C: Sleep disturbances are more related to sleep disorders. D: Sensory disruptions are more common in neurological or psychotic conditions.
Q82. A person who suddenly forgets their identity and travels unexpectedly to a different place may be experiencing:
A) Dissociative Amnesia with Fugue
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Delirium
Answer – A) Dissociative Amnesia with Fugue
Explanation: Dissociative Fugue is a subtype of Dissociative Amnesia where the person not only forgets personal information but also travels far from home, often without memory of the journey.
B: GAD involves chronic worry, not identity loss or travel. C: Bipolar disorder involves mood swings, not memory disruption. D: Delirium includes confusion, not purposeful travel or identity loss.
Q83. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is best described as a condition where:
A) The person displays heightened energy levels
B) The individual has two or more distinct identities or personality states
C) The focus is on physical illness without medical explanation
D) The person experiences repeated panic attacks
Answer – B) The individual has two or more distinct identities or personality states
Explanation: DID involves the presence of multiple distinct identities or “alters,” each with its own pattern of perceiving and interacting with the world, usually as a defense mechanism against severe trauma.
A: Heightened energy is more associated with mania. C: This describes somatic symptom disorder. D: Panic attacks are seen in anxiety or panic disorders.
Q84. Dissociative Amnesia refers to:
A) Inability to sleep for extended periods
B) Sudden inability to recall important personal information
C) Loss of vision unrelated to physical causes
D) Uncontrollable muscle movements
Answer – B) Sudden inability to recall important personal information
Explanation: Dissociative Amnesia involves memory loss, often linked to stressful or traumatic events. It is not due to physical injury but rather a psychological response to distress.
A: Sleep issues are not part of this disorder. C: Sudden vision loss would be more related to conversion disorder. D: Motor control issues are seen in neurological or somatoform conditions.
Q85. Which factor is most often linked to the onset of dissociative disorders?
A) Excessive physical exercise
B) Traumatic experiences, particularly in early life
C) High sugar intake in diet
D) Viral infections affecting the brain
Answer – B) Traumatic experiences, particularly in early life
Explanation: Dissociative disorders often stem from childhood trauma such as abuse, neglect, or overwhelming stress, which leads the mind to “dissociate” as a coping mechanism.
A: Physical activity does not contribute to dissociation. C: Diet is not a known cause of dissociative symptoms. D: While brain infections may affect cognition, they do not typically lead to dissociative conditions.
Q86. Individuals with Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) may:
A) Only show symptoms during sleep
B) Be unaware of their other personalities
C) Never lose memory
D) Exhibit consistent behavior across all situations
Answer – B) Be unaware of their other personalities
Explanation: People with DID often shift between identities without being aware of the actions or thoughts of the others, leading to memory gaps and confusion.
A: Symptoms occur during waking life, not just in sleep. C: Memory lapses are a common feature of DID. D: Behaviors may vary widely across different identities.
Q87. In depersonalization disorder, people often report:
A) Extreme euphoria
B) Feeling detached from themselves, as if watching from outside
C) Persistent sadness
D) Frequent physical illnesses
Answer – B) Feeling detached from themselves, as if watching from outside
Explanation: Depersonalization involves a sense of being disconnected from one’s own body or mental processes, often described as feeling like an outside observer of oneself.
A: Euphoria is not a typical symptom. C: Sadness is more related to depressive disorders. D: Physical symptoms are not the main focus here.
Q88. Which of the following statements is true about dissociative disorders?
A) They always involve hallucinations
B) They are caused by viral infections
C) They involve disruptions in awareness and identity
D) They are a type of personality disorder
Answer – C) They involve disruptions in awareness and identity
Explanation: Dissociative disorders are mental health conditions that involve problems with memory, identity, emotion, perception, behavior, and sense of self, typically due to trauma or stress.
A: Hallucinations are more associated with psychotic disorders. B: There is no biological or viral cause. D: They are categorized separately from personality disorders.
Q89. Treatment for dissociative disorders often focuses on:
A) Exposure to physical stimuli
B) Techniques to integrate different aspects of the self
C) Isolation and confinement
D) Heavy use of sedatives
Answer – B) Techniques to integrate different aspects of the self
Explanation: Therapy for dissociative disorders typically aims to help the individual integrate fragmented parts of their identity and develop coping mechanisms for trauma.
A: Physical stimuli exposure is used in other therapies, not here. C: Isolation can worsen symptoms. D: Sedatives are not a primary or long-term treatment approach.
Q90. Dissociative disorders often make it difficult for individuals to:
A) Digest food
B) Maintain a stable sense of self and memory
C) Hear high-pitched sounds
D) Walk in a straight line
Answer – B) Maintain a stable sense of self and memory
Explanation: A hallmark of dissociative disorders is the disruption in one’s sense of personal identity and continuity of memory, often due to trauma or overwhelming stress.
A: This is unrelated to dissociation. C: Hearing problems are not part of these disorders. D: Motor coordination is generally unaffected unless another condition is involved.
6. Depressive Disorders
Q91. Which of the following is a core symptom of Major Depressive Disorder?
A) Excessive energy
B) Elevated self-esteem
C) Persistent sadness or low mood
D) Rapid speech
Answer – C) Persistent sadness or low mood
Explanation: One of the defining features of Major Depressive Disorder is a prolonged low mood or persistent sadness, often accompanied by loss of interest or pleasure.
A: High energy levels are more associated with manic states. B: Elevated self-esteem typically appears in mania, not depression. D: Rapid speech is linked with manic episodes, not depressive ones.
Q92. A person with depression may experience all except:
A) Loss of interest in activities
B) Increased concentration
C) Changes in sleep patterns
D) Feelings of worthlessness
Answer – B) Increased concentration
Explanation: Depression often leads to difficulty concentrating, not improved focus. The other symptoms are typical indicators of depressive disorders.
A: Anhedonia (loss of interest) is a key symptom. C: Sleep disturbances are common, including insomnia or hypersomnia. D: Feelings of worthlessness are a hallmark symptom.
Q93. Which of the following is a psychological symptom of depression?
A) Chronic headache
B) Difficulty making decisions
C) High blood pressure
D) Skin rashes
Answer – B) Difficulty making decisions
Explanation: Difficulty in thinking or making decisions is a cognitive and psychological symptom of depression, unlike physical symptoms listed in the other options.
A: Physical symptom, not psychological. C: A physical condition unrelated to depression’s core psychological profile. D: Not associated with depressive cognitive patterns.
Q94. Depression is diagnosed when symptoms last for at least:
A) 2 days
B) 1 week
C) 2 weeks
D) 1 month
Answer – C) 2 weeks
Explanation: According to clinical diagnostic criteria, symptoms must persist for a minimum of two weeks to be classified as depression.
A: Too short for a clinical diagnosis. B: Still below the standard diagnostic threshold. D: May suggest chronic depression, but diagnosis starts at 2 weeks.
Q95. Which age group can experience depressive disorders?
A) Only adults
B) Only teenagers
C) All age groups
D) Only the elderly
Answer – C) All age groups
Explanation: Depressive disorders can affect people of any age, including children, adolescents, adults, and seniors. It is not limited to one demographic group.
A: Incorrect — children and teens can also suffer from depression. B: Depression isn’t exclusive to youth. D: The elderly may suffer, but so do other groups.
Q96. In the context of depressive disorders, what does the term “anhedonia” mean?
A) A persistent fear of interacting with others
B) A noticeable loss of interest or enjoyment in daily activities
C) Constant worry about physical health
D) Thoughts that lack organization and clarity
Answer – B) A noticeable loss of interest or enjoyment in daily activities
Explanation: Anhedonia is a core symptom of depression where the individual no longer finds pleasure in things they once enjoyed, such as hobbies or social interaction.
A: This describes social anxiety, not anhedonia. C: Related to health anxiety, not a key depressive feature. D: Disorganized thoughts are more common in psychotic conditions, not typical depression.
Q97. Which of the following accurately reflects depressive disorders?
A) They are only triggered by physical diseases
B) They affect only women
C) They influence thinking patterns, emotional responses, and actions
D) They are untreatable under any circumstance
Answer – C) They influence thinking patterns, emotional responses, and actions
Explanation: Depressive disorders impact multiple aspects of a person’s life, including cognition, emotions, and daily behaviors. They are not limited by gender or only caused by physical conditions.
A: While physical illness can contribute, depression has multiple causes. B: Depression can affect anyone, regardless of gender. D: Treatment is available and often effective with therapy and/or medication.
Q98. A commonly observed biological factor in individuals with depressive symptoms is:
A) Excessive production of serotonin in the brain
B) Low levels of mood-regulating neurotransmitters like serotonin and dopamine
C) High adrenaline levels due to physical activity
D) Increased sugar metabolism in the body
Answer – B) Low levels of mood-regulating neurotransmitters like serotonin and dopamine
Explanation: Neurochemical imbalances, especially reduced serotonin and dopamine, are linked to depressive symptoms such as low energy and negative emotions.
A: It’s the lack, not excess, of serotonin that is commonly associated. C: Adrenaline is linked to stress but not typically to depression. D: Metabolism isn’t a primary factor in depressive disorders.
Q99. What is an example of a cognitive symptom observed in depression?
A) Visual or auditory hallucinations
B) Holding false beliefs unrelated to reality
C) Persistent negative thoughts and feelings of low self-worth
D) Increased physical movements without purpose
Answer – C) Persistent negative thoughts and feelings of low self-worth
Explanation: Depression often affects how a person views themselves and the world, leading to pessimism, hopelessness, and difficulty concentrating—hallmarks of cognitive disturbance.
A: Hallucinations are more typical in psychotic disorders. B: Delusions are not common in mild to moderate depression. D: Restlessness may occur but is a behavioral, not cognitive, symptom.
Q100. Which behavior is commonly associated with someone experiencing depression?
A) Seeking constant stimulation and activity
B) Withdrawing from social interactions
C) Engaging in excessive shopping or spending
D) Displaying inflated self-importance
Answer – B) Withdrawing from social interactions
Explanation: Social withdrawal is a common sign of depression, where individuals avoid friends, family, or social settings due to low energy or emotional pain.
A: This may be linked with mania, not depression. C: Compulsive behaviors are more typical in impulse-control disorders. D: Grandiosity is linked to manic episodes, not depressive ones.
7. Bipolar and Related Disorders
Q101. What best defines the core pattern seen in Bipolar Disorder?
A) Experiencing only extended periods of sadness
B) Maintaining a consistently balanced mood
C) Shifting between intense emotional highs and lows
D) Gradual decline in memory ability
Answer – C) Shifting between intense emotional highs and lows
Explanation: Bipolar Disorder is marked by alternating episodes of mania (elevated mood and energy) and depression (low mood and energy), disrupting normal life functioning.
A: Describes unipolar depression, not bipolar patterns. B: Mood instability is a defining feature of the disorder. D: Memory issues are not a central feature of bipolar disorder.
Q102. What symptom is most likely seen during a manic phase of bipolar disorder?
A) Persistent fatigue and lack of motivation
B) Speaking less and moving slowly
C) Rapid speech and overconfidence
D) Sad mood with social detachment
Answer – C) Rapid speech and overconfidence
Explanation: Manic episodes are characterized by high energy, fast speech, inflated self-worth, and sometimes risky behavior. These contrast with the depressive phase of the disorder.
A: Common in depressive episodes, not mania. B: Slowness is more linked with depressive states. D: Indicates depressive features, not mania.
Q103. What is often seen during manic episodes in people with bipolar disorder?
A) Mania only occurs at night
B) Individuals feel constantly exhausted
C) Individuals may engage in risky or impulsive actions
D) Symptoms are limited to nervousness in public
Answer – C) Individuals may engage in risky or impulsive actions
Explanation: Manic episodes often include impulsive decisions, overspending, or reckless driving. These actions stem from heightened energy and reduced inhibition during mania.
A: Mania is not time-specific. B: High energy, not tiredness, is common. D: Social anxiety is unrelated to manic symptoms.
Q104. Mood changes in bipolar disorder typically involve:
A) Only changes in physical health
B) No real impact on the person’s day-to-day life
C) Swings between states of high energy and deep sadness
D) A single depressive episode followed by recovery
Answer – C) Swings between states of high energy and deep sadness
Explanation: The key feature of bipolar disorder is the fluctuation between manic highs and depressive lows, both of which significantly influence functioning and emotions.
A: Though physical health may be affected, mood is the primary issue. B: These mood swings often disrupt daily life. D: Bipolar disorder involves repeated episodes, not just one.
Q105. Which of the following is not typically seen in a manic episode?
A) Being highly active and goal-focused
B) Feeling a constant need to sleep
C) Racing and rapid thoughts
D) Believing one has exceptional talents or powers
Answer – B) Feeling a constant need to sleep
Explanation: People in manic states often require less sleep and still feel energized. Other symptoms include fast thinking, increased activity, and exaggerated self-beliefs.
A: Commonly observed in mania. C: A hallmark symptom of manic thinking. D: Grandiose delusions are typical in severe mania.
Q106. What mood patterns are commonly observed in individuals with Bipolar II Disorder?
A) Episodes of full-blown mania only
B) Periods of hypomania along with major depression
C) Episodes of delusional thinking without mood shifts
D) Complete emotional detachment at all times
Answer – B) Periods of hypomania along with major depression
Explanation: Bipolar II Disorder includes alternating episodes of hypomania (a milder form of mania) and major depressive episodes. It does not involve full manic episodes.
A: Full manic episodes occur in Bipolar I, not Bipolar II. C: Psychotic symptoms are not the defining feature of Bipolar II. D: Emotional detachment is not specific to this disorder.
Q107. How is hypomania best described in clinical terms?
A) An extreme version of mania
B) A brief and mild elevation in mood and energy
C) A sudden panic episode
D) A severe form of depressive breakdown
Answer – B) A brief and mild elevation in mood and energy
Explanation: Hypomania involves elevated mood and increased activity or energy that is less severe than mania and does not significantly impair daily functioning.
A: Hypomania is less severe, not more. C: Panic attacks are not part of hypomania. D: Hypomania is not a depressive state.
Q108. What clearly distinguishes Bipolar Disorder from Major Depressive Disorder?
A) Greater levels of sadness in bipolar disorder
B) The presence of both high and low mood states
C) Sleeping more hours per night
D) Lack of any emotional changes
Answer – B) The presence of both high and low mood states
Explanation: Bipolar disorder includes alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression, while major depressive disorder includes only depressive symptoms.
A: Intensity of sadness can be similar in both. C: Sleep patterns vary and are not diagnostic. D: Emotional changes are central to both disorders.
Q109. Which biological factor has been linked to the development of Bipolar Disorder?
A) Deficiency of iron in the bloodstream
B) Excess levels of vitamin D
C) Disruption in neurotransmitters like dopamine and serotonin
D) Reduced oxygen flow to the brain
Answer – C) Disruption in neurotransmitters like dopamine and serotonin
Explanation: Research shows that imbalances in brain chemicals such as dopamine and serotonin play a role in mood regulation and are often implicated in bipolar disorder.
A: Iron levels are not directly linked to mood disorders. B: Vitamin D imbalance is not a defining factor here. D: Oxygen supply issues are more related to neurological damage.
Q110. When do symptoms of Bipolar Disorder most commonly begin to show?
A) After age 60
B) During early school years
C) In the late teens or early twenties
D) In the pre-teen years
Answer – C) In the late teens or early twenties
Explanation: Bipolar disorder typically begins in early adulthood, a period when emotional, hormonal, and cognitive changes are prominent, making it a common age of onset.
A: Late-life onset is rare. B: Symptoms usually don’t appear in early childhood. D: Pre-teen onset is possible but not typical.
8. Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
Q111. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of schizophrenia?
A) Sudden gaps in long-term memory
B) Hearing voices and holding false beliefs
C) Excessive concern with cleanliness
D) Extremely high energy and enthusiasm
Answer – B) Hearing voices and holding false beliefs
Explanation: Schizophrenia is marked by psychotic symptoms, especially hallucinations (e.g., hearing voices) and delusions (e.g., false beliefs).
A: Not specific to schizophrenia; more related to amnesia. C: Might relate to OCD, not psychotic disorders. D: High energy is more typical of mania in bipolar disorder.
Q112. What is the correct definition of hallucinations in schizophrenia?
A) Strong opinions not supported by facts
B) Experiencing sensory events that are not actually present
C) Mood changes that happen without reason
D) Forgetting familiar information suddenly
Answer – B) Experiencing sensory events that are not actually present
Explanation: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions, like hearing voices or seeing things that aren’t there, often seen in schizophrenia.
A: Refers more to delusions, not hallucinations. C: Describes mood disorders, not sensory issues. D: Memory loss is not a hallmark of hallucinations.
Q113. Which option best defines delusions in the context of schizophrenia?
A) Repeating the same action frequently
B) Holding unshakeable beliefs that are false
C) Getting facts mixed up occasionally
D) Being easily distracted
Answer – B) Holding unshakeable beliefs that are false
Explanation: Delusions are persistent false beliefs that remain despite evidence to the contrary, such as believing one is being followed without proof.
A: Could relate to compulsive behavior, not delusions. C: Misinterpretations do not equal delusions. D: Inattention may occur but doesn’t define delusions.
Q114. If someone believes others are secretly trying to harm them, they are most likely showing:
A) A depressive mood swing
B) A persecutory delusion
C) An irrational fear or phobia
D) An overly energetic manic phase
Answer – B) A persecutory delusion
Explanation: Persecutory delusions involve a strong and unfounded belief that others intend to cause harm, common in schizophrenia.
A: Depression involves sadness, not paranoid beliefs. C: Phobias are fear-based, not belief-based. D: Mania is about mood elevation, not paranoia.
Q115. Disorganized thinking in schizophrenia often shows up as:
A) Clearly structured and focused conversations
B) Speech that jumps from one topic to another without logic
C) Choosing not to speak at all in social settings
D) Using long, advanced vocabulary words appropriately
Answer – B) Speech that jumps from one topic to another without logic
Explanation: Disorganized speech, such as tangential or incoherent talk, is a reflection of disturbed thought processes in schizophrenia.
A: Opposite of disorganized speech. C: Silence may occur, but not the best indicator of disorganized thought. D: Advanced vocabulary is unrelated to thought disorder.
Q116. Which of the following represents a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A) Hearing imaginary voices
B) Firm belief in untrue ideas
C) Emotional flatness and social withdrawal
D) Talking unusually fast
Answer – C) Emotional flatness and social withdrawal
Explanation: Negative symptoms include reduced emotional expression, lack of motivation, and social disengagement. These symptoms indicate a decrease in normal functioning.
A: Hallucinations are positive symptoms. B: Delusions are also classified as positive symptoms. D: Rapid speech is more linked to manic episodes, not schizophrenia’s negative symptoms.
Q117. In the context of schizophrenia, what does the term “avolition” refer to?
A) Holding strong but false beliefs
B) Difficulty initiating or following through with tasks
C) Forgetting important life events
D) Engaging in hyperactive behavior
Answer – B) Difficulty initiating or following through with tasks
Explanation: Avolition is a negative symptom of schizophrenia and refers to a lack of motivation and inability to start or persist in goal-directed behavior.
A: That describes a delusion, not avolition. C: Memory issues are not the defining symptom. D: Hyperactivity is not part of avolition; it’s more related to mania.
Q118. What is catatonia, as observed in some individuals with schizophrenia?
A) A state of severe nervousness and worry
B) Symptom typically seen in manic states
C) A condition involving extreme immobility or repetitive motion
D) An example of a visual hallucination
Answer – C) A condition involving extreme immobility or repetitive motion
Explanation: Catatonia refers to a behavioral syndrome marked by physical rigidity, lack of response, or repetitive movements. It may occur in schizophrenia or other mental health conditions.
A: Anxiety is not the central feature of catatonia. B: Catatonia is not a defining symptom of mania. D: Hallucinations involve perception, not movement or posture.
Q119. At what stage of life does schizophrenia most commonly begin?
A) During early childhood
B) In older adults above 60
C) In the late teenage years or early twenties
D) Around age 50
Answer – C) In the late teenage years or early twenties
Explanation: Schizophrenia typically starts in late adolescence or early adulthood, a crucial developmental period when major brain and social changes occur.
A: Childhood onset is rare and not typical. B: Late-life schizophrenia is uncommon. D: Middle age is not the usual onset period.
Q120. Which of the following is considered an effective treatment approach for managing schizophrenia?
A) Practicing yoga alone without medication
B) Relying solely on hospital stays
C) A combination of antipsychotic drugs and therapeutic support
D) Ignoring symptoms and avoiding therapy
Answer – C) A combination of antipsychotic drugs and therapeutic support
Explanation: Schizophrenia is best treated through integrated approaches including medication, psychosocial therapy, community support, and family education.
A: While helpful as a supplement, yoga alone is not sufficient. B: Hospitalization may be needed during crises but isn’t a long-term solution. D: Avoiding treatment worsens the condition over time.
9. Neurodevelopmental Disorders
Q121. When are neurodevelopmental disorders most commonly identified?
A) In adulthood
B) During the teenage years
C) In the early stages of childhood
D) In old age
Answer – C) In the early stages of childhood
Explanation: Neurodevelopmental disorders usually become noticeable in early childhood, as they affect growth and development of the nervous system, often interfering with learning and social behavior.
A: Adult onset is not typical for these disorders. B: While signs may persist into adolescence, diagnosis often occurs earlier. D: Old age is associated with neurodegenerative, not developmental, issues.
Q122. Which one of the following is considered a neurodevelopmental condition?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Autism Spectrum Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Answer – B) Autism Spectrum Disorder
Explanation: Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects communication, behavior, and social interaction, typically diagnosed in early development.
A: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder, not developmental. C: Bipolar Disorder is classified under mood disorders. D: PTSD results from trauma and is not developmental in origin.
Q123. A child with limited social communication and repetitive routines may be showing signs of:
A) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
B) Specific phobia
C) Autism Spectrum Disorder
D) Conduct-related problems
Answer – C) Autism Spectrum Disorder
Explanation: Autism Spectrum Disorder is characterized by challenges in social communication, restricted interests, and repetitive patterns of behavior.
A: ADHD involves inattention and hyperactivity, not restricted behaviors. B: Phobia involves irrational fear, not communication issues. D: Conduct disorder involves rule-breaking and aggression, not social deficits.
Q124. Which of the following abilities is most directly impacted by ADHD?
A) Vision and hearing ability
B) Physical development and growth
C) Regulation of attention, impulse control, and activity level
D) Emotional bonding with caregivers
Answer – C) Regulation of attention, impulse control, and activity level
Explanation: ADHD primarily affects cognitive and behavioral regulation, making it hard to focus, stay still, or resist impulsive actions.
A: Sensory processing is not a core symptom. B: ADHD does not directly affect physical growth. D: While emotional challenges may occur, they are not the primary issue.
Q125. A defining feature of Autism Spectrum Disorder is:
A) Unusually high energy levels
B) Having firm false beliefs
C) Difficulty in social engagement and communication
D) Seeing or hearing things that aren’t real
Answer – C) Difficulty in social engagement and communication
Explanation: Individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder often struggle with social interaction and may display limited or atypical communication patterns.
A: Hyperactivity is more associated with ADHD. B: Delusions are seen in psychotic disorders, not autism. D: Hallucinations are not a diagnostic feature of ASD.
Q126. Which of the following is not a typical feature seen in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
A) Inattention
B) Hyperactivity
C) Repetitive rituals
D) Impulsivity
Answer – C) Repetitive rituals
Explanation: Repetitive behaviors or rituals are more commonly associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder, not ADHD, which is mainly characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness.
A: Difficulty focusing is a hallmark of ADHD. B: Excessive movement or restlessness is often seen. D: Acting without thinking is a common challenge in ADHD.
Q127. What type of therapy is frequently used to support individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Electroconvulsive Therapy
B) Behavioral therapy and social skills training
C) Only medication
D) Dream analysis
Answer – B) Behavioral therapy and social skills training
Explanation: Interventions for Autism often include Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA), structured learning, and social skills development to improve communication and adaptive behavior.
A: ECT is not used for ASD and is generally reserved for severe mood disorders. C: Medications may be used for co-occurring symptoms but not as the sole treatment. D: Dream analysis is a psychoanalytic method, not suitable for developmental conditions.
Q128. Children diagnosed with ADHD often face challenges in which of the following areas?
A) Visual perception
B) Staying focused on tasks
C) Physical disabilities
D) Language development only
Answer – B) Staying focused on tasks
Explanation: Children with ADHD typically struggle with sustaining attention, especially on tasks requiring focus or delayed rewards.
A: Visual perception is not a core difficulty in ADHD. C: ADHD does not primarily involve motor disabilities. D: Language issues may occur but are not central to ADHD diagnosis.
Q129. Which of the following is generally not considered a contributing factor to neurodevelopmental disorders?
A) Genetic influences
B) Early brain damage
C) Poor parenting
D) Prenatal exposure to harmful substances
Answer – C) Poor parenting
Explanation: Scientific evidence does not support poor parenting as a direct cause of neurodevelopmental disorders, which are largely influenced by biological and environmental risk factors during early development.
A: Many neurodevelopmental disorders have a genetic component. B: Brain injury early in life can impact development. D: Exposure to toxins or infections in the womb can increase risk.
Q130. How are neurodevelopmental disorders commonly addressed in treatment?
A) Ignoring the symptoms
B) Punishing the child for unusual behavior
C) Multimodal approaches including behavioral strategies and educational support
D) Long-term hospitalization only
Answer – C) Multimodal approaches including behavioral strategies and educational support
Explanation: Effective management of neurodevelopmental disorders typically combines structured behavioral interventions, special education, and in some cases, medication or therapy for co-existing conditions.
A: Ignoring symptoms delays support and worsens outcomes. B: Punishment is ineffective and harmful. D: Hospitalization is not routine unless there’s a crisis.
10. Disruptive, Impulse-Control and Conduct Disorders
Q131. What is a key characteristic of impulse-control disorders?
A) Repeated memory loss
B) Inability to feel emotions
C) Failure to resist a strong urge or temptation
D) Persistent mood elevation
Answer – C) Failure to resist a strong urge or temptation
Explanation: Impulse-control disorders involve challenges in self-regulation, where individuals struggle to stop themselves from performing actions that may be harmful.
A: More typical of neurological conditions. B: Not central to impulse-control issues. D: Seen in manic states, not in impulse disorders.
Q132. A child frequently breaking rules, lying, and being aggressive may be diagnosed with:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Conduct Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Autism Spectrum Disorder
Answer – B) Conduct Disorder
Explanation: Conduct Disorder is marked by a pattern of violating rules, being aggressive, and showing little regard for the rights of others or social norms.
A: Involves persistent worry, not aggression. C: Bipolar disorder includes mood swings but not necessarily rule-breaking behavior. D: Autism involves social and communication difficulties, not aggression.
Q133. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) typically includes:
A) Persistent sadness
B) Social phobia
C) Defiant, argumentative behavior toward authority figures
D) Involuntary motor movements
Answer – C) Defiant, argumentative behavior toward authority figures
Explanation: Children with ODD regularly display defiance, argue with adults, and refuse to comply with rules without engaging in serious aggression or legal violations.
A: Seen in depressive disorders. B: Characteristic of anxiety disorders. D: More related to tic disorders.
Q134. Which behavior is most typical in individuals with Conduct Disorder?
A) Sleep paralysis episodes
B) Repeated violation of rules and social expectations
C) Intense irrational fears
D) Complete social withdrawal
Answer – B) Repeated violation of rules and social expectations
Explanation: Conduct Disorder is defined by ongoing behavioral issues such as breaking laws, aggression, and disregard for others’ rights.
A: More typical of sleep disorders. C: Found in phobic conditions. D: May be seen in other mental health issues, but not a hallmark of Conduct Disorder.
Q135. How is Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) different from Conduct Disorder?
A) ODD involves violent actions; Conduct Disorder does not
B) ODD is found only in adults
C) ODD shows defiance without major violation of others’ rights
D) There’s no real difference between the two
Answer – C) ODD shows defiance without major violation of others’ rights
Explanation: While both disorders involve oppositional behavior, ODD typically involves less severe actions and does not include criminal or aggressive violations common in Conduct Disorder.
A: Actually, Conduct Disorder is associated with violent actions. B: ODD primarily appears in children. D: There is a clear clinical distinction between the two.
Q136. What is the primary feature of Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
A) Constant sadness
B) Sudden, aggressive outbursts that are disproportionate
C) Compulsive cleanliness behaviors
D) Persistent refusal to eat
Answer – B) Sudden, aggressive outbursts that are disproportionate
Explanation: Intermittent Explosive Disorder involves episodes of extreme anger or aggression that are not in proportion to the situation, often resulting in harm or destruction.
A: More related to mood disorders. C: Associated with OCD, not IED. D: May indicate eating disorders.
Q137. If left untreated, Conduct Disorder in childhood may develop into:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Schizophrenia
Answer – C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
Explanation: Many individuals with untreated Conduct Disorder in childhood show patterns of antisocial behavior as adults, often meeting the criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder.
A: Anxiety is not a typical progression. B: Borderline traits are emotionally driven, not behavioral. D: Schizophrenia involves psychosis, not conduct patterns.
Q138. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding disruptive and impulse-control disorders?
A) They don’t influence behavior
B) They begin only in old age
C) They involve difficulties in managing emotions and actions
D) They are always the result of physical brain damage
Answer – C) They involve difficulties in managing emotions and actions
Explanation: These disorders commonly involve impulsive behavior, aggression, and poor emotional regulation, particularly in children and adolescents.
A: Behavior is the core area of concern. B: Most cases begin in early life stages. D: While brain factors may contribute, they are not the only cause.
Q139. A lack of which emotional trait is commonly seen in children with Conduct Disorder?
A) Expressiveness
B) Drive
C) Empathy and guilt
D) Physical stamina
Answer – C) Empathy and guilt
Explanation: Individuals with Conduct Disorder often show a noticeable lack of concern for others, with little remorse for their harmful actions.
A: May still show expression, even if aggressive. B: Some may be highly motivated in harmful actions. D: Not directly relevant to the disorder.
Q140. What is a widely accepted approach to managing disruptive and impulse-control disorders?
A) Physical fitness programs alone
B) Complete isolation from others
C) Structured behavior therapy and active parental support
D) Exclusive reliance on medications
Answer – C) Structured behavior therapy and active parental support
Explanation: Effective management often includes behavioral training, family involvement, and sometimes educational support, rather than relying solely on medication or isolation.
A: Helpful for general health but not core treatment. B: Can worsen behavioral symptoms. D: Medication may assist, but therapy is essential.
11. Feeding and Eating Disorders
Q141. What is a defining feature of Anorexia Nervosa?
A) Eating excessively with no concern
B) Persistent fear of weight gain despite being underweight
C) Craving sweet foods constantly
D) Frequent vomiting due to indigestion
Answer – B) Persistent fear of weight gain despite being underweight
Explanation: Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa often have an intense fear of gaining weight and may severely restrict food intake, even when underweight.
A: This better fits Binge Eating Disorder. C: Not a diagnostic feature of Anorexia. D: Vomiting in Anorexia is typically self-induced, not due to digestive issues.
Q142. How is Bulimia Nervosa most accurately described?
A) Eliminating entire food categories
B) Episodes of overeating followed by purging behaviors
C) Eating primarily at night
D) Excessive focus on exercise alone
Answer – B) Episodes of overeating followed by purging behaviors
Explanation: Bulimia Nervosa involves cycles of binge eating followed by behaviors like vomiting or excessive exercise to avoid weight gain.
A: May occur but is not central to Bulimia. C: Not a defining feature. D: While exercise may be used for compensation, purging is key to diagnosis.
Q143. What is commonly observed in someone with Binge Eating Disorder?
A) Small, frequent meals throughout the day
B) Repeated overeating without compensatory behaviors
C) Long periods of fasting
D) Preference for only liquid-based meals
Answer – B) Repeated overeating without compensatory behaviors
Explanation: Binge Eating Disorder involves uncontrollable episodes of consuming large amounts of food, often followed by guilt, but without purging.
A: Not indicative of binge episodes. C: Suggestive of Anorexia or dieting. D: Not related to this disorder.
Q144. A person who often eats a lot quickly and later feels regret is likely experiencing:
A) Schizophrenia
B) Binge Eating Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Autism Spectrum Disorder
Answer – B) Binge Eating Disorder
Explanation: Binge Eating Disorder is marked by rapid consumption of large amounts of food, often followed by emotional distress or shame.
A: Not related to eating behavior. C: Mood episodes are central, not binge eating. D: Doesn’t primarily involve binge patterns.
Q145. Which eating disorder is most likely to result in severe weight loss and nutritional problems?
A) Binge Eating Disorder
B) Anorexia Nervosa
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Social Anxiety Disorder
Answer – B) Anorexia Nervosa
Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa typically involves extreme restriction of food intake, leading to significant weight loss and risk of malnutrition or organ damage.
A: May involve weight gain, not loss. C: Not an eating disorder. D: Focuses on social fear, not eating habits.
Q146. Which of the following is a medical complication commonly associated with Bulimia Nervosa?
A) High blood pressure
B) Tooth enamel erosion and electrolyte imbalance
C) Improved metabolism
D) Increased bone density
Answer – B) Tooth enamel erosion and electrolyte imbalance
Explanation: Frequent purging in Bulimia Nervosa can damage tooth enamel due to stomach acid and disrupt electrolyte balance, which may lead to heart issues.
A: Not a typical complication; low blood pressure is more likely. C: Metabolism often becomes irregular, not improved. D: Bone density issues are more common in Anorexia Nervosa.
Q147. A distorted body image is most strongly linked with which of the following disorders?
A) Panic Disorder
B) Anorexia Nervosa
C) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D) Phobia
Answer – B) Anorexia Nervosa
Explanation: In Anorexia Nervosa, individuals often perceive themselves as overweight even when severely underweight, indicating a distorted body image.
A: Involves sudden fear, not body image concerns. C: May involve perfectionism, but not body distortion. D: Involves fear of specific stimuli, not body image.
Q148. Which eating disorder is most likely to be concealed due to guilt and embarrassment?
A) Obesity
B) Anorexia
C) Bulimia Nervosa
D) Sleep Apnea
Answer – C) Bulimia Nervosa
Explanation: People with Bulimia Nervosa often hide binge and purge behaviors due to feelings of shame, making the disorder difficult to detect.
A: Not classified as a psychological eating disorder. B: Often more visibly noticeable than Bulimia. D: A sleep-related disorder, not an eating one.
Q149. What is the most effective general approach for treating eating disorders?
A) Only physical exercise
B) Hospitalization and medication only
C) A combination of nutritional, psychological, and medical support
D) Ignoring the symptoms until they pass
Answer – C) A combination of nutritional, psychological, and medical support
Explanation: Comprehensive treatment involving therapy, diet planning, and medical monitoring is the most effective strategy for managing eating disorders.
A: Exercise alone cannot address psychological components. B: Medication may help but isn’t enough on its own. D: Eating disorders require active intervention.
Q150. Which of the following is not considered an eating disorder?
A) Bulimia Nervosa
B) Binge Eating Disorder
C) Conduct Disorder
D) Anorexia Nervosa
Answer – C) Conduct Disorder
Explanation: Conduct Disorder is classified under Disruptive and Impulse-Control Disorders, not Feeding and Eating Disorders.
A: A recognized eating disorder. B: Officially classified as an eating disorder. D: Falls under Feeding and Eating Disorders.
12. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders
Q151. What is a defining feature of substance use disorders?
A) Drinking occasionally in social settings
B) Taking medicines exactly as prescribed
C) Repeated use of a substance even when it causes problems
D) Choosing to stay away from friends
Answer – C) Repeated use of a substance even when it causes problems
Explanation: Substance use disorders are marked by a persistent pattern of use despite harmful consequences in personal, social, or health areas.
A: Social drinking without harm does not indicate a disorder. B: Proper use of medication is healthy and not a sign of misuse. D: Social withdrawal might occur in many disorders, but it is not the core issue here.
Q152. A person who needs higher doses of a drug to feel the same effect and feels unwell without it is likely experiencing:
A) A disorder related to personality traits
B) A condition involving substance-related problems
C) A sleeping difficulty
D) An emotional instability condition
Answer – B) A condition involving substance-related problems
Explanation: Tolerance (needing more of a substance) and withdrawal (discomfort without it) are both signs of a substance use disorder.
A: Personality disorders involve long-term behavior patterns, not substance reactions. C: Sleep disorders can be separate or result from substance use but aren’t the primary issue. D: Mood disorders involve emotional fluctuations, not substance dependency.
Q153. What does the term “tolerance” mean in the context of substance use?
A) Becoming extra sensitive to a drug after one use
B) Needing very small doses for effects
C) Needing larger amounts over time to get the same effect
D) Losing interest in using the substance
Answer – C) Needing larger amounts over time to get the same effect
Explanation: Tolerance means that the body adjusts to the drug, requiring more of it to achieve the same outcome as before.
A: This describes hypersensitivity, not tolerance. B: The opposite of tolerance; sensitivity would require smaller amounts. D: Reduced interest doesn’t reflect tolerance or dependence.
Q154. When do withdrawal symptoms usually appear?
A) When therapy begins
B) After the dosage is increased
C) When the substance is stopped or reduced
D) Once the body builds full immunity to the substance
Answer – C) When the substance is stopped or reduced
Explanation: Withdrawal symptoms occur when someone who is dependent stops using or cuts down on the substance, leading to physical and mental discomfort.
A: Therapy doesn’t trigger withdrawal directly. B: Increasing dosage usually delays withdrawal, not causes it. D: Substances don’t cause immunity in this sense; this is a misunderstanding.
Q155. Which of the following is not a usual sign of substance dependency?
A) Strong urge to use the substance
B) Improved sleep and energy
C) Ignoring responsibilities due to usage
D) Problems in work or social life
Answer – B) Improved sleep and energy
Explanation: Substance use usually disrupts sleep and lowers energy. Craving, neglecting duties, and interpersonal issues are commonly found symptoms.
A: Craving is a core component of addiction. C: Dependence often leads to avoiding responsibilities. D: Social and occupational disruptions are common indicators.
Q156. What does addiction usually involve?
A) Using legal items like vitamins once in a while
B) A strong need or urge to use a substance again and again
C) Having fun with substances without any problems
D) Taking health supplements regularly
Answer – B) A strong need or urge to use a substance again and again
Explanation: Addiction means a person feels a powerful craving or compulsion to keep using a substance, even if it causes harm.
A: Legal and occasional use doesn’t mean addiction. C: Addiction causes problems, not just fun. D: Vitamins and supplements are not addictive in this context.
Q157. What is meant by psychological dependence on a substance?
A) Not being able to take it physically
B) Feeling emotionally or mentally dependent on the substance
C) Using a drug only because a doctor said so
D) Getting sick after taking the substance
Answer – B) Feeling emotionally or mentally dependent on the substance
Explanation: Psychological dependence means a person feels they *need* the substance to deal with stress, emotions, or daily life, even if their body doesn’t physically need it.
A: This refers to physical ability, not psychological needs. C: Medical use under supervision is not dependence. D: Vomiting could be a side effect, not a definition of dependence.
Q158. Which of these is a behavior commonly seen in people with addiction?
A) Organizing their routine well
B) Finding new hobbies and staying active
C) Losing control and being unable to stop using the substance
D) Doing better at studies or work
Answer – C) Losing control and being unable to stop using the substance
Explanation: One major sign of addiction is that the person can’t stop using the substance, even when they want to or when it causes problems in life.
A: Addiction often disrupts routines rather than improving them. B: People with addiction often lose interest in hobbies. D: Addiction usually harms performance, not improve it.
Q159. Alcohol, tobacco (nicotine), and cannabis are all examples of:
A) Prescription medicines
B) Mental illnesses
C) Substances that affect the brain and mood (psychoactive substances)
D) Personality differences
Answer – C) Substances that affect the brain and mood (psychoactive substances)
Explanation: These substances change how a person thinks, feels, or behaves. That’s why they are called *psychoactive*.
A: These are not normally prescribed by doctors. B: They may lead to disorders but are not disorders by themselves. D: These have nothing to do with personality traits.
Q160. Which type of therapy is commonly used to help people with substance use problems?
A) Dream interpretation
B) Gradual exposure to fears
C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
D) Conditioning through rewards only
Answer – C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
Explanation: CBT helps people recognize negative thinking patterns and behaviors related to substance use, and teaches healthier ways to cope.
A: Dream analysis is not useful in treating addiction. B: Exposure therapy is mostly for phobias, not addiction. D: Rewards alone are not enough for long-term change.
Major Psychological Disorders important parts to remember!
Disorder Type
Description
Examples
Anxiety Disorders
Intense and persistent fear or worry, often with physical symptoms.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Phobias, Panic
Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders
Repetitive intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and actions (compulsions).
OCD, Body Dysmorphic Disorder
Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
Develop after exposure to extreme stress or trauma.
PTSD, Adjustment Disorder
Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
Physical symptoms without medical cause, linked to psychological distress.
Somatic Symptom Disorder, Illness Anxiety
Dissociative Disorders
Disruptions in memory, identity, or awareness.
Dissociative Amnesia, DID
Depressive Disorders
Persistent low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue.
Major Depressive Disorder
Bipolar and Related Disorders
Alternating periods of depression and mania/hypomania.
Bipolar I & II Disorder
Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
Distorted thinking, hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior.
Schizophrenia, Brief Psychotic Disorder
Neurodevelopmental Disorders
Early-onset disorders affecting cognitive and social functioning.
Autism, ADHD
Disruptive, Impulse-Control and Conduct Disorders
Problems with self-control of emotions and behaviors that violate social rules.
Conduct Disorder, Intermittent Explosive Disorder
Feeding and Eating Disorders
Disturbed eating behaviors with severe health consequences.
