CUET UG Psychology: Self and Personality

CUET UG Psychology: Self and Personality

Unit 2: Self and Personality PYQs & MCQs with full explanations

Q1. What does the study of “Self and Personality” in psychology primarily help us understand?
  • A) Only physical development
  • B) External appearance
  • C) Internal processes and individual differences
  • D) Just intelligence
Answer – C) Internal processes and individual differences
Explanation: The study of self and personality focuses on understanding how people perceive themselves, how they behave, and what makes individuals unique in terms of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
Other Options Explained:
A: Physical development is part of biological psychology.
B: Appearance is superficial, not central to psychological self.
D: Intelligence is just one aspect of individual difference.
Q2. In psychology, what does the term “self” refer to?
  • A) A person’s financial status
  • B) The way one views oneself
  • C) Physical traits only
  • D) Emotional instability
Answer – B) The way one views oneself
Explanation: In psychological terms, “self” refers to one’s self-concept — how individuals perceive and evaluate themselves, including their thoughts, beliefs, and identity.
Other Options Explained:
A: Financial status is unrelated to the psychological concept of self.
C: Physical traits are external and not the full picture.
D: Emotional instability is not a definition of self.
Q3. Which of the following is a standardized self-report personality test?
  • A) TAT
  • B) MMPI
  • C) EEG
  • D) Draw-a-Person Test
Answer – B) MMPI
Explanation: The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a widely used self-report test that assesses various personality traits and psychological disorders using standardized questions.
Other Options Explained:
A: TAT is a projective test, not self-report.
C: EEG measures brain activity, not personality.
D: Draw-a-Person Test is projective, not standardized.
Q4. What key concept did Carl Rogers emphasize in his theory of personality?
  • A) Dreams
  • B) Defense mechanisms
  • C) Unconditional positive regard
  • D) Physical strength
Answer – C) Unconditional positive regard
Explanation: Carl Rogers believed that for a person to grow and fulfill their potential, they need an environment that provides genuineness, acceptance, and unconditional positive regard.
Other Options Explained:
A: Dreams were emphasized by Freud, not Rogers.
B: Defense mechanisms are part of psychoanalysis.
D: Physical strength is not part of his personality theory.
Q5. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the highest level a person can achieve?
  • A) Esteem
  • B) Belongingness
  • C) Safety
  • D) Self-actualization
Answer – D) Self-actualization
Explanation: Self-actualization is at the top of Maslow’s pyramid. It refers to realizing one’s full potential, creativity, and purpose after all basic and psychological needs are met.
Other Options Explained:
A: Esteem is just below self-actualization in the hierarchy.
B: Belongingness addresses social needs.
C: Safety needs relate to security and protection.
Q6. Cultural approach helps understand:
  • A) Only childhood behavior
  • B) Personality in diverse societies
  • C) Only Western ideas
  • D) Role of medication
Answer – B) Personality in diverse societies
Explanation: The cultural approach studies how personality is shaped by the values, beliefs, customs, and practices of different societies, highlighting how definitions of self vary across cultures.
A: Childhood behavior is part of developmental psychology.
C: Cultural approach includes global perspectives, not just Western.
D: Medication is not central to cultural personality theory.
Q7. Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes:
  • A) Observational learning and modeling
  • B) Only punishment
  • C) Inborn traits
  • D) Genetic codes
Answer – A) Observational learning and modeling
Explanation: Albert Bandura’s theory focuses on how people learn behaviors through observing others and imitating them, especially when those behaviors are rewarded — a process called modeling.
B: Punishment is one aspect, but not the focus.
C: Inborn traits are more related to trait theories.
D: Genetic codes are biological, not social learning elements.
Q8. According to Freud, the id functions based on the:
  • A) Social principle
  • B) Pleasure principle
  • C) Reality principle
  • D) Moral principle
Answer – B) Pleasure principle
Explanation: In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, the id is the primitive part of the personality that seeks immediate gratification of desires and operates on the pleasure principle, without considering reality or morality.
A: Not a Freudian concept.
C: Reality principle is associated with the ego.
D: Moral principle is linked to the superego.
Q9. A student resisting distractions to complete homework is showing:
  • A) Emotional repression
  • B) Strong self-regulation
  • C) Low intelligence
  • D) Lack of motivation
Answer – B) Strong self-regulation
Explanation: Self-regulation involves the ability to control one’s behavior, emotions, and thoughts in pursuit of long-term goals. Resisting distractions reflects effective self-regulatory control.
A: Emotional repression is about suppressing feelings, not staying focused.
C: Intelligence is not the issue here.
D: Completing homework shows motivation, not a lack of it.
Q10. High self-esteem in adolescents is usually associated with:
  • A) Social withdrawal
  • B) Positive self-concept and confidence
  • C) Poor academic motivation
  • D) Low emotional control
Answer – B) Positive self-concept and confidence
Explanation: Adolescents with high self-esteem usually have a positive view of themselves and are more confident in handling social, academic, and personal challenges.
A: Social withdrawal is more linked to low self-esteem.
C: High self-esteem often leads to higher motivation.
D: It enhances, not lowers, emotional control.
Q11. In psychological assessment, an interview refers to which of the following?
  • A) A casual talk
  • B) Structured or unstructured verbal questioning
  • C) Always standardized
  • D) A test with correct answers
Answer – B) Structured or unstructured verbal questioning
Explanation: Interviews in psychology involve either planned (structured) or open-ended (unstructured) conversations to gather in-depth personal information, making them a flexible and widely used method of assessment.
Other Options Explained:
A: Casual talk lacks structure and purpose for assessment.
C: Not all interviews follow a strict format.
D: Interviews do not involve right or wrong answers like academic tests.
Q12. Which method is most effective for diagnosing emotional and mental issues in clinical settings?
  • A) Interview and observation only
  • B) School marks
  • C) Projective tests and case studies
  • D) Multiple-choice general tests
Answer – C) Projective tests and case studies
Explanation: Projective techniques such as the TAT and Rorschach, along with detailed case studies, help reveal underlying thoughts, emotions, and personality dynamics critical for clinical diagnosis.
Other Options Explained:
A: Helpful but not as in-depth without projective tools.
B: Academic performance doesn’t reflect emotional state.
D: General tests lack depth for psychological diagnosis.
Q13. The Draw-A-Person Test is categorized under which type of psychological tool?
  • A) Inventory
  • B) Intelligence test
  • C) Projective technique
  • D) Learning scale
Answer – C) Projective technique
Explanation: The Draw-A-Person Test is a projective technique that uses drawings to uncover inner thoughts, emotions, and personality features, especially in children and non-verbal individuals.
Other Options Explained:
A: Inventories are usually structured with rating scales.
B: Intelligence tests measure cognitive abilities.
D: Learning scales track academic progress, not personality.
Q14. What primarily shapes a person’s personality?
  • A) Only genetics
  • B) Environment only
  • C) Both heredity and environment
  • D) Nutrition only
Answer – C) Both heredity and environment
Explanation: Personality is a result of the complex interaction between genetic makeup and life experiences, including family, culture, and education.
Other Options Explained:
A: Genetics contribute but don’t work alone.
B: Environment matters but isn’t the sole factor.
D: Nutrition may impact health, not personality.
Q15. A student who remains positive and hopeful in different situations shows what kind of characteristic?
  • A) Situational mood
  • B) Long-term emotional disorder
  • C) Positive personality trait
  • D) Low intelligence
Answer – C) Positive personality trait
Explanation: Consistent optimism and cheerfulness reflect a **positive personality trait**, not just a momentary mood or condition. These are stable features over time.
Other Options Explained:
A: Moods are temporary, unlike traits.
B: Optimism is not a disorder.
D: Intelligence is unrelated to emotional attitude.
Q16. How are personality traits generally understood in psychology?
  • A) Fixed only by heredity
  • B) Always conscious
  • C) Long-term and stable behavioral tendencies
  • D) Just physical features
Answer – C) Long-term and stable behavioral tendencies
Explanation: Personality traits refer to consistent patterns in behavior, thought, and emotion that remain stable across time and situations.
Other Options Explained:
A: Traits are influenced by both heredity and environment.
B: Some traits may operate unconsciously.
D: Physical features are not considered personality traits.
Q17. Which of the following correctly matches a cultural orientation with its typical value?
  • A) Individualistic – group identity
  • B) Collectivist – independence
  • C) Collectivist – cooperation and harmony
  • D) Western – interdependence
Answer – C) Collectivist – cooperation and harmony
Explanation: Collectivist cultures emphasize working together, maintaining relationships, and prioritizing the group over individual gain.
Other Options Explained:
A: Group identity is more associated with collectivist, not individualistic, cultures.
B: Independence is a value of individualistic cultures.
D: Western cultures tend to value independence over interdependence.
Q18. Which statement reflects an interdependent view of the self?
  • A) “I succeed when I win over others.”
  • B) “I am part of my community, and we succeed together.”
  • C) “Only I matter in my choices.”
  • D) “I need no one to reach my goals.”
Answer – B) “I am part of my community, and we succeed together.”
Explanation: An interdependent self-concept emphasizes social roles, connectedness, and shared success within a group or community.
Other Options Explained:
A, C, D: These are examples of independent or individualistic self-views.
Q19. Someone who says, “I am unique, and I make my own choices,” is likely influenced by which cultural background?
  • A) Collectivist culture
  • B) Rural background
  • C) Individualistic culture
  • D) Historical culture
Answer – C) Individualistic culture
Explanation: Individualistic cultures promote personal freedom, self-expression, and the belief that individuals are independent from groups.
Other Options Explained:
A: Collectivist cultures value group harmony.
B, D: These are not directly related to the concept of individualism.
Q20. In cultures that emphasize collectivism, personal identity is shaped mainly by:
  • A) Self-achievement
  • B) Individual success only
  • C) Group goals and harmony
  • D) Personal uniqueness
Answer – C) Group goals and harmony
Explanation: Collectivist societies prioritize maintaining group unity, fulfilling social roles, and achieving common goals over personal ambitions.
Other Options Explained:
A, B, D: These are more aligned with individualistic values.
Q21. Which of the following combinations reflects healthy psychological adjustment?
  • A) High self-esteem, low self-efficacy, poor regulation
  • B) Low esteem, high regulation, no efficacy
  • C) High esteem, high efficacy, strong self-regulation
  • D) No esteem, no efficacy, emotional reactivity
Answer – C) High esteem, high efficacy, strong self-regulation
Explanation: A psychologically well-adjusted person typically feels confident, believes in their ability to succeed, and can manage impulses and emotions effectively.
Other Options Explained:
A: Poor self-regulation and low efficacy weaken adjustment.
B: Low self-esteem undermines overall wellbeing.
D: This combination shows signs of maladjustment.
Q22. What is a common outcome of low self-esteem?
  • A) High motivation
  • B) Healthy risk-taking
  • C) Lack of confidence and anxiety
  • D) Better memory
Answer – C) Lack of confidence and anxiety
Explanation: People with low self-esteem often struggle with self-doubt, leading to anxious feelings and reluctance to take on challenges.
Other Options Explained:
A, B, D: These are generally associated with high or balanced self-esteem.
Q23. Which of the following best shows high self-efficacy?
  • A) “I don’t think I can do this.”
  • B) “I’ll try, but I’ll probably fail.”
  • C) “I know I can handle this challenge.”
  • D) “Let someone else do it.”
Answer – C) “I know I can handle this challenge.”
Explanation: High self-efficacy reflects belief in one’s ability to succeed in specific tasks or situations, which helps with goal setting and persistence.
Other Options Explained:
A, B, D: These show low confidence or avoidance behavior.
Q24. A person who manages their time well and avoids impulsive behavior shows:
  • A) High self-regulation
  • B) Low self-esteem
  • C) High anxiety
  • D) Poor habits
Answer – A) High self-regulation
Explanation: Self-regulation involves managing thoughts, behaviors, and emotions to achieve long-term goals, including time and emotional control.
Other Options Explained:
B: Not directly related to time management.
C: Anxiety often disrupts regulation.
D: Poor habits are signs of low regulation.
Q25. What did Bandura describe as self-efficacy?
  • A) Belief in luck
  • B) Confidence in your ability to perform specific tasks
  • C) Knowing about IQ
  • D) Motivation from peers
Answer – B) Confidence in your ability to perform specific tasks
Explanation: According to Albert Bandura, self-efficacy is the belief in one’s ability to plan and execute actions needed to manage different situations effectively.
Other Options Explained:
A: Luck is unrelated to self-efficacy.
C: IQ is a different concept.
D: Peer motivation is external, while self-efficacy is internal.
Q26. Which of the following is an example of social self?
  • A) Identifying as a student of a school
  • B) Knowing your test scores
  • C) Feeling hungry
  • D) Having a dream
Answer – A) Identifying as a student of a school
Explanation: The social self refers to one’s identity in relation to social groups, roles, and affiliations like being a student, sibling, or citizen.
Other Options Explained:
B: Academic knowledge, not social identity.
C, D: Related to personal or physiological states, not social self.
Q27. The difference between self-concept and self-esteem is:
  • A) They are the same
  • B) Self-esteem is how much value you place on yourself
  • C) Self-concept is about your IQ
  • D) Self-esteem is related to body image only
Answer – B) Self-esteem is how much value you place on yourself
Explanation: Self-concept is the image or perception one has of oneself, while self-esteem reflects the value or worth one assigns to that self-image.
Other Options Explained:
A: They are related but not the same.
C: IQ may be a part of self-concept but doesn’t define it.
D: Self-esteem covers much more than appearance.
Q28. The ideal self represents:
  • A) What others expect of you
  • B) Your present qualities
  • C) The person you strive to become
  • D) Your personality type
Answer – C) The person you strive to become
Explanation: The ideal self is the version of oneself that one aspires to be — goals, dreams, and personal standards included.
Other Options Explained:
A: That’s external expectation, not internal ideal.
B: Describes the real self.
D: Personality type is a fixed categorization.
Q29. The social self includes:
  • A) A person’s habits
  • B) Their sense of social identity and group membership
  • C) Physical appearance
  • D) Academic performance
Answer – B) Their sense of social identity and group membership
Explanation: Social self refers to how one perceives themselves in relation to others — including roles, group identity, and social interactions.
Other Options Explained:
A: May reflect routine but not social identity.
C, D: Related to body or performance, not social group belonging.
Q30. Which of these is NOT a dimension of self?
  • A) Personal self
  • B) Political self
  • C) Social self
  • D) Ideal self
Answer – B) Political self
Explanation: The main dimensions of the self are personal, social, and ideal. “Political self” is not a recognized psychological dimension of self in standard theories.
Other Options Explained:
A: Involves individual traits and identity.
C: Involves group belonging.
D: Reflects aspirations and personal goals.
Q31. How is personality best described in psychology?
  • A) A person’s social media profile
  • B) A combination of traits that make one unique
  • C) A reflection in the mirror
  • D) A list of career goals
Answer – B) A combination of traits that make one unique
Explanation: Personality in psychology refers to the unique and consistent patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving that distinguish individuals from one another.
Other Options Explained:
A: Only reflects curated aspects, not entire personality.
C: Reflections show physical appearance, not traits.
D: Career goals may be influenced by personality but are not personality itself.
Q32. What does a well-developed sense of self contribute to?
  • A) Increased emotional instability
  • B) Stronger identity and confidence
  • C) Physical strength
  • D) Lower intelligence
Answer – B) Stronger identity and confidence
Explanation: A healthy self-concept leads to self-assurance, emotional well-being, and clarity about one’s values and goals, forming a strong personal identity.
Other Options Explained:
A: Instability is linked with a weak self-concept.
C: Self does not directly relate to physical strength.
D: Intelligence and self are separate psychological dimensions.
Q33. What does behavioral analysis in personality assessment typically involve?
  • A) Observing behavior in natural settings
  • B) Scoring projective tests
  • C) Recording dreams
  • D) Using MRI scans
Answer – A) Observing behavior in natural settings
Explanation: Behavioral analysis assesses how individuals act in real-life or controlled situations, offering insights into their personality traits and responses.
Other Options Explained:
B: Projective test scoring is part of a different method.
C: Dream analysis is linked to psychoanalysis.
D: MRI scans show brain activity, not personality traits.
Q34. The Rorschach Inkblot Test is categorized under which type of assessment?
  • A) Self-report test
  • B) Neuro test
  • C) Projective technique
  • D) Learning test
Answer – C) Projective technique
Explanation: The Rorschach test uses ambiguous inkblots to uncover unconscious aspects of personality through spontaneous responses, making it a classic projective technique.
Other Options Explained:
A: Self-report tests involve direct questionnaires.
B: Neuro tests assess brain functions.
D: Learning tests evaluate acquired knowledge or skills.
Q35. What type of material is used in the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
  • A) Incomplete sentences
  • B) Stories with endings
  • C) Ambiguous pictures
  • D) Lists of traits
Answer – C) Ambiguous pictures
Explanation: The TAT presents vague images where individuals create stories, revealing underlying motives, conflicts, and personality aspects.
Other Options Explained:
A: Used in sentence completion techniques.
B: Pre-written endings don’t allow projection.
D: Trait lists are part of inventories, not projective tools.
Q36. What is the primary focus of humanistic theories of personality?
  • A) Unconscious fears
  • B) Personal growth and self-actualization
  • C) Social punishment
  • D) Heredity
Answer – B) Personal growth and self-actualization
Explanation: Humanistic theories, like those of Maslow and Rogers, emphasize the positive potential in people and focus on growth, free will, and reaching one’s full potential (self-actualization).
Other Options Explained:
A: Unconscious fears are key in psychoanalysis.
C: Social punishment relates more to behaviorism.
D: Heredity is emphasized in biological theories, not humanistic ones.
Q37. A child copying aggressive behavior seen in a parent is an example of:
  • A) Trait expression
  • B) Operant conditioning
  • C) Observational learning
  • D) Regression
Answer – C) Observational learning
Explanation: Observational learning, as explained by Bandura, happens when individuals watch and imitate others’ behaviors, especially those of role models like parents.
Other Options Explained:
A: Trait expression refers to stable personality characteristics.
B: Operant conditioning involves reinforcement, not imitation.
D: Regression is a defense mechanism, not a learning process.
Q38. How did B.F. Skinner believe behavior is learned and maintained?
  • A) Self-reflection
  • B) Reinforcement and punishment
  • C) Biological instincts
  • D) Moral values
Answer – B) Reinforcement and punishment
Explanation: Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning suggests that behavior is influenced by the consequences it produces—rewards encourage repetition, while punishments reduce behavior.
Other Options Explained:
A: Self-reflection is emphasized in cognitive and humanistic theories.
C: Biological instincts are central to evolutionary theories.
D: Moral values are not a focus of behaviorism.
Q39. What is the central idea behind the behavioral approach to personality?
  • A) Unconscious wishes
  • B) Dream analysis
  • C) Learning from environment
  • D) Heredity only
Answer – C) Learning from environment
Explanation: Behavioral theories focus on observable behavior and emphasize that personality is shaped through learning and interactions with the environment.
Other Options Explained:
A: Linked to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory.
B: Dream analysis is also part of psychoanalysis.
D: Behaviorists downplay heredity and focus on learned behavior.
Q40. According to Freud, what is the function of defense mechanisms?
  • A) Create anxiety
  • B) Protect the ego from anxiety
  • C) Increase mental illness
  • D) Eliminate guilt
Answer – B) Protect the ego from anxiety
Explanation: Freud proposed that defense mechanisms are unconscious processes that help reduce anxiety by distorting reality and protecting the ego from distressing thoughts or conflicts.
Other Options Explained:
A: They aim to reduce, not create, anxiety.
C: They may become problematic if overused but are not meant to increase illness.
D: Guilt can be reduced by some mechanisms, but that’s not their main purpose.
Q41. According to Freud, personality is structured into which of the following components?
  • A) Four ego levels
  • B) Brain-based zones
  • C) Id, ego, and superego
  • D) Id only
Answer – C) Id, ego, and superego
Explanation: Freud suggested that personality has three main components: the id (instinctual drives), the ego (rational thinking), and the superego (moral conscience). These interact to influence behavior.
A: Freud did not refer to four ego levels.
B: Brain-based zones are not part of his theory.
D: The id is just one part of the personality structure.
Q42. Which of the following is not one of the Big Five personality traits?
  • A) Openness
  • B) Conscientiousness
  • C) Humor
  • D) Neuroticism
Answer – C) Humor
Explanation: The Big Five personality traits include Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism. Humor is not included as a core trait in this model.
A: Part of the Big Five, referring to creativity and openness to experience.
B: Related to discipline and organization.
D: Reflects emotional stability or instability.
Q43. How did Raymond Cattell assess personality?
  • A) Projective drawings
  • B) 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
  • C) Blood pressure
  • D) Dreams
Answer – B) 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
Explanation: Cattell developed the 16PF, a standardized tool designed to measure basic personality traits using factor analysis.
A: Not part of Cattell’s method.
C: Blood pressure is a biological measure, not psychological.
D: Dreams are interpreted in psychoanalysis, not trait theory.
Q44. In trait theory, traits are best defined as:
  • A) Temporary emotional states
  • B) Permanent personality labels
  • C) Relatively stable characteristics
  • D) Cultural roles
Answer – C) Relatively stable characteristics
Explanation: Traits are enduring patterns of behavior, thought, and emotion that tend to be consistent over time and across situations.
A: Emotions are temporary; traits are stable.
B: Traits are not permanent labels but tendencies.
D: Cultural roles relate to social expectations, not traits.
Q45. What classification of traits did Gordon Allport propose in his theory of personality?
  • A) Type I and II personalities
  • B) Cardinal, central, and secondary traits
  • C) Big Five model
  • D) Ego, superego, and id
Answer – B) Cardinal, central, and secondary traits
Explanation: Allport’s trait theory organized personality traits into three levels: cardinal (dominant traits), central (major traits of a person), and secondary (more situation-specific traits).
A: Type theories belong to other theorists.
C: Big Five is a modern trait model not by Allport.
D: Freud proposed the id, ego, and superego model.
Q46. What is a major limitation of Type Approaches to personality?
  • A) They are always accurate
  • B) They do not consider individual uniqueness
  • C) They include intelligence tests
  • D) They focus only on one gender
Answer – B) They do not consider individual uniqueness
Explanation: Type Approaches categorize people into fixed types (like introvert or extrovert), often ignoring the complexity and uniqueness of each individual.
A: Type approaches can be oversimplified and not always accurate.
C: These approaches do not involve intelligence tests.
D: Type theories are not gender-specific.
Q47. According to Sheldon’s body type theory, a mesomorph is described as:
  • A) Fat and sociable
  • B) Thin and shy
  • C) Muscular and energetic
  • D) Short and lazy
Answer – C) Muscular and energetic
Explanation: Sheldon proposed that mesomorphs, who have a muscular and athletic build, tend to be bold, energetic, and action-oriented.
A: This describes endomorphs, not mesomorphs.
B: Ectomorphs are thin and often seen as reserved.
D: “Short and lazy” is not a valid psychological description.
Q48. Who introduced the introvert–extrovert dimension of personality?
  • A) Freud
  • B) Jung
  • C) Maslow
  • D) Skinner
Answer – B) Jung
Explanation: Carl Jung was the first to define the concepts of introversion and extraversion as opposite personality orientations related to energy direction.
A: Freud focused more on unconscious and psychosexual development.
C: Maslow focused on needs and self-actualization.
D: Skinner worked with behavior and reinforcement, not personality types.
Q49. Studying personality allows psychologists to:
  • A) Classify emotions only
  • B) Ignore individual differences
  • C) Predict consistent behavior patterns
  • D) Avoid counseling processes
Answer – C) Predict consistent behavior patterns
Explanation: One key goal of personality psychology is to understand how individuals typically behave, think, and feel across different situations, aiding in prediction and support.
A: Emotions are part of personality but not the sole focus.
B: Personality study emphasizes individual uniqueness.
D: It supports, not avoids, counseling.
Q50. Which field of psychology is most directly connected to the study of self and personality?
  • A) Neuropsychology
  • B) Educational psychology
  • C) Social psychology
  • D) Clinical psychology
Answer – D) Clinical psychology
Explanation: Clinical psychology deeply involves understanding individual personality and self-concept for diagnosing and treating psychological disorders.
A: Neuropsychology focuses on brain–behavior relationships.
B: Educational psychology focuses on learning and instruction.
C: Social psychology explores group dynamics more than individual personality.
Q51. Which of the following helps in enhancing self-efficacy?
  • A) Past success and encouragement
  • B) Lack of practice
  • C) Peer pressure
  • D) Avoiding challenges
Answer – A) Past success and encouragement
Explanation: Self-efficacy is strengthened by personal accomplishments, encouragement from others, and observing successful role models. These experiences build belief in one’s ability to succeed.
B: Lack of practice reduces confidence and self-belief.
C: Peer pressure may increase doubt or stress.
D: Avoiding challenges prevents skill development and weakens self-efficacy.
Q52. According to Bandura, self-efficacy refers to:
  • A) Belief in luck
  • B) Confidence in your ability to perform specific tasks
  • C) Knowing about IQ
  • D) Motivation from peers
Answer – B) Confidence in your ability to perform specific tasks
Explanation: Bandura defined self-efficacy as an individual’s belief in their ability to organize and execute actions required to manage situations effectively.
A: Self-efficacy is based on personal ability, not chance.
C: IQ relates to intelligence, not task-specific belief.
D: Peer motivation can help, but it’s not the definition.
Q53. In individualistic cultures, the self is usually viewed as:
  • A) Interdependent
  • B) Connected to society
  • C) Independent and unique
  • D) Controlled by family
Answer – C) Independent and unique
Explanation: Individualistic cultures, such as in the West, emphasize personal goals, uniqueness, and independence over group identity.
A: Interdependence is more common in collectivist cultures.
B: While society plays a role, the self is viewed more autonomously.
D: Family influence is less emphasized in individualistic settings.
Q54. Which type of self is typically encouraged in Western cultures?
  • A) Interdependent self
  • B) Isolated self
  • C) Independent self
  • D) Socially diffused self
Answer – C) Independent self
Explanation: Western societies emphasize the independent self, where individuals prioritize autonomy, self-expression, and personal achievements.
A: Interdependence is more valued in Eastern or collectivist cultures.
B: “Isolated self” is not a valid psychological concept.
D: “Socially diffused” self is not a recognized category.
Q55. Which psychologist is best known for developing the psychodynamic theory of personality?
  • A) B.F. Skinner
  • B) Carl Rogers
  • C) Sigmund Freud
  • D) Gordon Allport
Answer – C) Sigmund Freud
Explanation: Freud is the pioneer of the psychodynamic approach, which explores unconscious motives, childhood experiences, and inner conflicts in shaping personality.
A: Skinner focused on behavior and reinforcement.
B: Rogers is known for humanistic theory.
D: Allport worked with trait theory, not the psychodynamic approach.
Q56. Who proposed a personality theory linking behavior with bodily fluids or humors?
  • A) Maslow
  • B) Sheldon
  • C) Hippocrates
  • D) Erikson
Answer – C) Hippocrates
Explanation: Hippocrates suggested that human temperament was shaped by an imbalance in four bodily fluids—blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile—marking one of the earliest biological perspectives on personality.
A: Maslow is known for humanistic theory and the hierarchy of needs.
B: Sheldon linked body types to personality traits, not humors.
D: Erikson developed psychosocial stages of development.
Q57. What defines a self-report personality test?
  • A) Conducted by psychologists without individual input
  • B) Based on brain scan data
  • C) Filled out by individuals about their own traits and behavior
  • D) Group evaluation through verbal discussion
Answer – C) Filled out by individuals about their own traits and behavior
Explanation: A self-report inventory collects responses directly from individuals, who evaluate and report on their own personality characteristics.
A: These tests rely on self-disclosure, not third-party assessment.
B: Brain imaging tools are not part of personality self-reports.
D: Self-reports are structured and written, not group discussions.
Q58. Which of the following is an example of a self-report inventory used to assess personality?
  • A) Rorschach Inkblot Test
  • B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
  • C) 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
  • D) EEG Scan
Answer – C) 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire
Explanation: Cattell’s 16PF is a structured questionnaire in which individuals respond to items revealing consistent behavioral patterns across 16 key traits.
A: The Rorschach is a projective technique, not a self-report.
B: TAT uses picture interpretation, not self-reporting.
D: EEG measures brain activity, not personality.
Q59. On what idea are projective tests based?
  • A) Responses must be purely factual
  • B) People reveal their hidden emotions through ambiguous prompts
  • C) Personality equals intelligence
  • D) Personalities cannot be studied scientifically
Answer – B) People reveal their hidden emotions through ambiguous prompts
Explanation: Projective techniques like the TAT or Rorschach operate on the belief that when faced with vague or unstructured stimuli, individuals unconsciously project their personal conflicts, desires, and fears onto the situation.
A: Responses are interpretative, not factual.
C: Personality and intelligence are separate constructs.
D: Personality can be assessed using both structured and projective tools.
Q60. What would a psychologist explore under the topic of ‘Self and Personality’?
  • A) Changes in body temperature
  • B) Digestive system processes
  • C) Thoughts, emotions, and personal identity
  • D) Physical workout routines
Answer – C) Thoughts, emotions, and personal identity
Explanation: The study of self and personality examines how individuals view themselves, how they emotionally respond, and how personality patterns influence behavior across different contexts.
A: Body temperature is a physiological factor unrelated to personality.
B: Digestion is part of biology, not personality.
D: Fitness routines are not directly studied under self-concept or traits.
Q61. Which of the following best describes the Draw-A-Person Test used in personality assessment?
  • A) Inventory
  • B) Intelligence test
  • C) Projective technique
  • D) Learning scale
Answer – C) Projective technique
Explanation: The Draw-A-Person Test allows individuals to express unconscious feelings through drawings, making it a projective technique often used in clinical settings.
A: Inventories are structured questionnaires, not drawing-based.
B: While it can give hints, it’s not a formal intelligence test.
D: Learning scales measure academic progress, not personality.
Q62. Which of the following is considered a projective method of personality testing?
  • A) MMPI
  • B) Rorschach Inkblot Test
  • C) WAIS
  • D) 16PF
Answer – B) Rorschach Inkblot Test
Explanation: The Rorschach test uses ambiguous inkblots to reveal hidden emotions and conflicts, making it a classic projective tool.
A: MMPI is a standardized self-report inventory.
C: WAIS measures intelligence, not personality.
D: 16PF is a trait-based self-report inventory.
Q63. What does self-regulation primarily involve?
  • A) Seeking rewards from others
  • B) Controlling thoughts, emotions, and behaviors
  • C) Ignoring stress
  • D) Depending on feedback
Answer – B) Controlling thoughts, emotions, and behaviors
Explanation: Self-regulation means managing your emotions, thoughts, and actions to reach personal goals and handle challenges effectively.
A: External rewards don’t define self-regulation.
C: Ignoring stress can backfire instead of helping control it.
D: While feedback helps, self-regulation is an internal process.
Q64. A student who ignores distractions to complete homework shows which of the following?
  • A) Emotional repression
  • B) Strong self-regulation
  • C) Low intelligence
  • D) Lack of motivation
Answer – B) Strong self-regulation
Explanation: Staying focused and resisting temptation to complete a task is a classic example of effective self-regulation.
A: Emotional repression is about hiding feelings, not task focus.
C: Intelligence is not the focus here.
D: The student is showing motivation by persisting with work.
Q65. What does the Type Approach to personality aim to do?
  • A) Classify individuals based on intelligence
  • B) Link behavior to blood types
  • C) Group people by bodily or personality traits
  • D) Study behavior from social media use
Answer – C) Group people by bodily or personality traits
Explanation: Type approaches divide individuals into fixed categories based on observable patterns, such as body shape (Sheldon) or temperament (Hippocrates).
A: Intelligence testing is not central to type theory.
B: Blood type theories lack scientific support.
D: Social media analysis is not a basis for traditional type approaches.
Q66. On what basis did Hippocrates classify different personality types?
  • A) Emotions
  • B) Bodily fluids (humors)
  • C) Mental illness
  • D) Environment
Answer – B) Bodily fluids (humors)
Explanation: Hippocrates proposed that personality traits stemmed from the balance of four body fluids — blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile — a theory known as the humor-based classification.
A: Emotions may be influenced by humors but weren’t the basis of his theory.
C: Mental illness wasn’t part of his personality classification.
D: Environmental factors were not central to his typology.
Q67. Which of the following is commonly used in behavioral assessment of personality?
  • A) Rorschach Inkblot Test
  • B) Role-play
  • C) Blood pressure test
  • D) IQ testing
Answer – B) Role-play
Explanation: Role-play allows psychologists to observe how individuals respond to specific situations, making it a practical tool in behavioral assessments.
A: Rorschach is a projective technique, not a behavioral method.
C: Blood pressure tests measure physical health, not behavior.
D: IQ tests assess intelligence, not personality behavior.
Q68. How is personality generally understood in Indian philosophical thought?
  • A) A fixed trait
  • B) A result of test scores
  • C) An interplay of spiritual, mental, and physical aspects
  • D) Social popularity
Answer – C) An interplay of spiritual, mental, and physical aspects
Explanation: Indian tradition views personality as a holistic combination of body, mind, and soul, emphasizing balance and self-realization.
A: Indian thought emphasizes growth, not fixed traits.
B: Personality is not determined by academic tests.
D: Popularity is not a traditional psychological measure.
Q69. What is the central idea behind humanistic theories of personality?
  • A) Unconscious fears
  • B) Personal growth and self-actualization
  • C) Social punishment
  • D) Heredity
Answer – B) Personal growth and self-actualization
Explanation: Humanistic theories focus on the individual’s natural drive to achieve personal growth, reach full potential, and pursue self-fulfillment.
A: Unconscious fears are part of psychodynamic theory.
C: Humanistic psychology emphasizes positivity, not punishment.
D: Biological factors are important but not central in humanistic theory.
Q70. What does Maslow describe as the highest level in his hierarchy of needs?
  • A) Esteem
  • B) Belongingness
  • C) Safety
  • D) Self-actualization
Answer – D) Self-actualization
Explanation: Maslow’s theory places self-actualization — the realization of one’s full potential and creativity — at the top of the hierarchy of needs.
A: Esteem is one level below self-actualization.
B: Belongingness is a middle-level need.
C: Safety needs are more basic and foundational.

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